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Thread: 50 mcqs in pharmacology

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    Post 50 mcqs in pharmacology

    DIRECTIONS: For each of the following questions, choose the single most appropriate answer.



    1. Which of the following is NOT an effect of therapeutically used estrogens?

    1. Relief of peri-menopausal symptoms.

    2. Increased risk of endometrial cancer.

    3. Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease after menopause.

    4. Reduced bone loss after menopause.

    5. Increased joint inflammation after menopause.





    2. Combined oral contraceptives usually consist of an estrogen and:

    1. A selective estrogen-receptor modulator.

    2. An antiprogestin.

    3. An antiandrogen.

    4. A progestin.

    5. An androgen.





    3. Flutamide is:


    1. An androgen used to treat endometriosis.

    2. An inhibitor of 5a-reductase that is used to treat prostatic hyperplasia.

    3. An antagonist at the progestin receptor that is used to induce abortion during early pregnancy.

    4. An antagonist at the androgen receptor that is used for palliative treatment of prostatic cancer.

    5. An antagonist at the estrogen receptor that is used to treat infertility.



    4. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen-receptor modulator that acts therapeutically as an estrogen agonist in bone and as an estrogen antagonist in:


    1. Liver.

    2. Breast.

    3. Uterus.

    4. Ovary.

    5. Brain.



    5. Receptors for estrogens, progestins, and androgens are classified as which of the following?



    1. Ligand-activated ion channels

    2. Tyrosine kinase receptors

    3. G-protein-coupled receptors

    4. Cytokine receptors

    5. Ligand-activated transcription factors



    6. The first FDA approved recombinant protein therapeutic was:

    1. Interferon.

    2. Adenosine deaminase.

    3. Human growth hormone.

    4. Human insulin.

    5. Indinavir.



    7. Rational drug design was used to discover:

    1. New gene therapy vectors.

    2. Altaplase.

    3. Tetracycline.

    4. ADA.

    5. Indinavir.



    8. In the first FDA approved gene therapy protocol, gene delivery was accomplished using:

    1. An adenoviral vector.

    2. A retroviral vector.

    3. A plasmid.

    4. A liposome.

    5. A ribozyme.



    9. The rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of dopamine is:

    1. DOPA decarboxylase.

    2. Dopamine b hydrolase.

    3. Tyrosine hydroxylase.

    4. Tyrosine decarboxylase.

    5. DOPA hydrolase.



    10. The following structures belong to the basal ganglia:

    1. Cortex, striatum, globus pallidum, substantia nigra

    2. Striatum, globus pallidum, substantia nigra, thalamus

    3. Cortex, striatum, globus pallidum, substantia nigra, subthalamus, thalamus

    4. Striatum, globus pallidum, substantia nigra, subthalamus

    5. Cortex, striatum, substantia nigra, subthalamus



    11. The subthalamic neurons, which project to the output structures of the basal ganglia, are:

    1. Gabaergic

    2. Glutamatergic

    3. Dopaminergic

    4. Cholinergic

    5. Serotonergic



    12. Which of these compounds are NOT used for treatment of Parkinsonís disease?

    1. MAO inhibitors

    2. COMT inhibitors

    3. D2 receptor agonists

    4. D2 receptor antagonists

    5. Dopamine transporter blockers



    13. The symptoms of Parkinsonís disease are associated with an excessive:

    1. Inhibition of thalamo-cortical neurons.

    2. Excitation of thalamo-cortical neurons.

    3. Inhibition of subthalamic neurons.

    4. Dopaminergic transmission.

    5. Inhibition of the output structures of the basal ganglia.



    14. Heroin was often included in many patient medications available in the latter part of the 19th century and early part of the 20th century, leading to dependence by many. Studies of addiction to heroin during this period indicated that the largest number dependent on heroin was found in:

    1. Young males.

    2. Older males.

    3. Older females.

    4. Younger females.

    5. Equal use in males and females.



    15. Although drug dependence exists without physical dependence, the severity of physical dependence, determined by withdrawal signs and symptoms, is most severe and dangerous to life with which of the following?

    1. Alcohol

    2. Heroin

    3. Cocaine

    4. Hallucinogens such as PCP (angel dust)

    5. Amphetamine



    16. Most recent research has concluded that the critical neurotransmitter or neuropeptide and brain areas involved in the rewarding effects of abuse substances are:

    1. Dopamine and the substantia nigra.

    2. Norepinephrine and the nucleus accumbens.

    3. Endorphins and the locus coeruleus.

    4. Dopamine and the nucleus accumbens.

    5. Dopamine and the hippocampus.



    17. If you were held-up at gunpoint on Washington Street which of the following substances might the perpetrator most likely have just taken?

    1. Cocaine

    2. Alcohol

    3. Heroin

    4. PCP (angel dust)

    5. Amphetamine



    18. A relatively homologous animal model of drug-seeking behavior is drug self-administration in the rat. A reinforcement schedule often used is a fixed rate 5, every 5 lever presses delivers an intravenous bolus of drug to the animal. If you pretreat the rat with an antagonist to the self-administering drug the animal will:

    1. Decrease its intake of drug.

    2. Not change its intake of drug.

    3. Increase its intake of drug.

    4. Stop responding for the drug.

    5. Increase its intake of the drug only if it is heroin.



    19. The first hypothesis that feelings of anxiety were due to alterations in physiology was:

    1. Set forth by Wilhem Wundt during the birth of the experimental psychology movement.

    2. Declared after the discovery that drugs with mind altering properties have unique sites in the nervous system.

    3. Proven to be true by the fact that classical benzodiazepines increase the response of the central nervous system to emotionally charged events.

    4. Expressed by Aristotle over 2500 years ago.

    5. Not made until the acceptance of barbiturates as anxiolytic agents.



    20. Benzodiazepines can be distinguished from barbiturates because of the following characteristics:

    1. Benzodiazepines increase the duration of channel openings while barbiturates increase channel frequency.

    2. Barbiturates have a high therapeutic index, directly open the GABAA receptor channel, and induce P450 enzymes.

    3. Overdose from benzodiazepines can be effectively treated by administration of the benzodiazepine antagonist, flumazenil, while there is no antidote for barbiturate overdose.

    4. Benzodiazepines have a low therapeutic index, low abuse liability, and few drug interactions.

    5. Benzodiazepines and barbiturates have a high abuse liability.

    21. A major problem in the treatment of anxiety disorders is the development of tolerance to longterm treatment. Tolerance can be reduced by which therapeutic regimen?

    1. The use of diazepam instead of alprazolam

    2. Combination therapy of a partial benzodiazepine modulator with a full modulator

    3. Scheduled interruptions in drug treatment

    4. Removal of drug therapy followed by treatment with barbiturates

    5. Use of short-acting benzodiazepines and partial modulators at the benzodiazepine site



    22. The majority of drugs being prescribed today for the treatment of anxiety disorders are:

    1. Barbiturates and tranquilizers.

    2. Phenothiazines and benzodiazepines.

    3. Benzodiazepines and partial agonists acting at a receptor for serotonin.

    4. Benzodiazepines and serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    5. Benzodiazepines and other anxiogenic drugs.



    23. The anxiolytic effect of benzodiazepines results from:

    1. Their affinity for 5HT1A receptors

    2. Their ability to decrease the EC50 of GABA with respect to GABAA receptor mediated chloride influx

    3. Their noncompetitive interaction with GABA at the GABAB receptor

    4. Their ability to increase the maximum inhibitory effect of GABA

    5. Their allosteric modulation of the GABAA receptor indicated by a shift of the GABA concentration-response curve to the right.



    24. The major mechanism of terminating the usual interaction of dopamine with its receptors in the CNS is:

    1. Biotransformation by monoamine oxidase in the synapse.

    2. Uptake into glia by a transporter blocked by cocaine.

    3. Uptake by a postsynaptic membrane transporter coupled to Na,K ATPase.

    4. Reuptake by an energy dependent, electroneutral, high affinity transport process that can transport amphetamine.

    5. Reuptake by a unidirectional presynaptic transporter that can move dopamine into the presynaptic terminal but not carry it outward.



    25. The intensity of the euphoric effect of cocaine is:

    1. Greater from smoking the hydrochloride salt form of cocaine than the free base.

    2. Greater following oral than intranasal administration.

    3. Comparable after IV injection and smoking of crack cocaine because of rapid access to the CNS.

    4. Determined by the degree of cocaine-induced activation of the nigrostriatal pathway in the CNS.

    5. Determined by the degree of cocaine-induced inhibition of the mesolimbic pathway of the CNS.

    26. Which of the following correctly matches a CNS stimulant with its probable site of action:

    1. Nicotine: agonist at G protein-coupled ion channel that is selective for anions

    2. Caffeine: antagonist at adenosine receptors

    3. Amphetamine: direct acting agonist at dopamine receptors

    4. Methylxanthines: antagonist at dopamine receptors

    5. Cocaine: presynaptic vesicular release of dopamine



    27. Which of the following most closely matches CNS stimulants with chemical class:

    1. Nicotine: synthetic quaternary ammonium compound

    2. Caffeine: pyrimidine

    3. Cocaine: acetylcholine-like ester

    4. Amphetamine: catecholamine

    5. Nicotine: methylxanthine



    28. The abuse liability is greatest with:

    1. Caffeine

    2. Cocaine

    3. Benzodiazepines

    4. Aspirin

    5. Marijuana

    29. Analgesic agents are primarily distinguished from anesthetic agents in that:

    1. Analgesics are administered orally and anesthetics by intravenous injection.

    2. Analgesics primarily act directly at synapses in the spinal cord, whereas anesthetics act in the brain.

    3. Anesthetics are more selective for inhibition of Ad and C fibers than are analgesics.

    4. Analgesics are more selective for inhibition of the sensation of pain, relative to other sensory modalities.

    5. Analgesics have a lower therapeutic index than anesthetics.



    30. Receptors which mediate the primary effects of opioids are:

    1. Presynaptic transporters of amines.

    2. Membrane proteins activated by endogenous peptides.

    3. Enzymes which convert arachidonic acid to prostaglandins.

    4. Proteins referred to as NMDA and AMPA.

    5. Proteins which are present in the brain but not the spinal cord.



    31. Aspirin is preferred to morphine for treatment of pain, because it is LESS likely to cause all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. Constipation.

    2. Peptic ulcer and bleeding.

    3. Sedation.

    4. Tolerance.

    5. Symptoms on withdrawal because of physical dependence.



    32. The rate of onset of anesthesia from a drug like nitrous oxide or isoflurane is primarily determined by:

    1. The speed of the intravenous injection.

    2. The degree of solubility of the agent in blood (blood/gas solubility coefficient).

    3. The MAC of the drug.

    4. The rate of conversion to its active metabolite.

    5. The rate of conversion of liquid particles in the alveolus to the gaseous form.



    33. Analysis of the structure of cyclooxygenase by x-ray crystallography has lead to:

    1. The discovery of reversible cyclooxygenase inhibitors like acetaminophen.

    2. Design of drugs which are selective for an inducible form of the enzyme (COX2) as compared to the constituitive form (COX1).

    3. Design of drugs which, unlike aspirin, are irreversible enzyme inhibitors.

    4. The discovery of antiinflammatory agents which induce synthesis of the enzyme.

    5. Improved understanding of the mechanisms of prostaglandin degradation.



    34. Resistance to antiviral agents is characterized by:

    1. A minimum of 20 amino acid substitutions in any one mutated protein drug target.

    2. The use of drugs in combination, preferably drugs that act on the same protein.

    3. Increase in the IC50 of drugs, as has been shown for drugs acting on viral reverse transcriptase and viral protease.

    4. Alteration in host cell membranes resulting in decreased passive diffusion into the intracellular site of action.

    5. Increased viral production of b-lactamase.



    35. The lack of selectivity of cancer chemotherapeutic agents is primarily manifested clinically by:

    1. Hypertension.

    2. Impaired synthesis in the bone marrow of the cellular elements of blood.

    3. Hyperplasia of cardiac muscle.

    4. Increased rate of new blood vessel growth (angiogenesis).

    5. Their high therapeutic index.



    36. Drug-induced inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase:

    1. Is a mechanism for the M-phase specific effect of some cancer chemotherapeutic agents.

    2. Occurs at the same IC50 for the enzymes from bacterial, protozoal, and mammalian cells.

    3. Is the basis of the antibacterial effect of sulfonamide drugs.

    4. Inhibits cell replication primarily by an effect on mRNA translation.

    5. Inhibits DNA synthesis by depleting pools of thymidine nucleotides.



    37. The penicillin drugs are:

    1. Activated by B-lactamase.

    2. Relatively toxic in humans with a therapeutic index which is similar to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs.

    3. Structurally based on an antibiotic that was originally discovered in a plant from the Amazon region.

    4. Compounds with a four-membered B-lactam ring required for antibacterial efficacy.

    5. Generally more selective for gram negative bacteria which have a thicker cell wall than do gram positive organisms.



    38. Sites of action of antibacterial agents include all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. DNA gyrase.

    2. Microtubules.

    3. 50S and 30S ribosomal subunits.

    4. Cell wall synthesis.

    5. RNA polymerase.

    39. Sites of action of emetics used to treat poisonings include:

    1. Muscarinic M3 receptors of the area postrema located in the stomach.

    2. Histamine H1 receptors in the cerebellum.

    3. Nicotinic receptors in the thalamus.

    4. Dopaminergic D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

    5. Adrenergic 5HT3 receptors in the small intestine.



    40. An example of an antidote used in poisonings to increase the inactivation rate of a toxic metabolite is:

    1. Ethanol.

    2. Atropine.

    3. N-acetylcysteine.

    4. Activated charcoal.

    5. Naloxone.



    41. All of the following are factors which increase the likelihood of a chemical being the cause of a poisoning reported to a Poison Control Center, EXCEPT:

    1. Ubiquity in households.

    2. Low therapeutic index.

    3. Indication for treatment of depression.

    4. Synthesis by techniques of recombinant protein biotechnology.

    5. Packaging in containers without childproof covers.



    42. The 1998 EPA regulation on water disinfectants is of significance in risk assessment, in that the maximum contaminant level goal for chloroform was:

    1. Decreased to 0, due to the carcinogenic risk from chloroform exposure.

    2. Decreased to 0, because linear low dose extrapolations must be applied for all chemicals which are carcinogenic in animal models.

    3. Changed to a concentration greater than 0, because the nongenotoxic mechanism of carcinogenesis suggests that a nonlinear low dose extrapolation is more rational than a linear one.

    4. Changed to a concentration greater than 0, because the genotoxic mechanism of carcinogenesis suggests that a nonlinear low dose extrapolation is more rational than a linear one.

    5. Changed to a concentration greater than 0, based solely on economic factors.



    43. The LD50 of acetaminophen is increased in mice with deletions of genes for:

    1. Glutathione synthetase.

    2. CYP1A2 and CYP2E1.

    3. Glucuronyl transferase.

    4. N-acetyl transferase.

    5. Ah receptor.



    44. The acute toxicity of organochlorine pesticides such as DDT results from:

    1. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase.

    2. Activation of the Ah receptor.

    3. Excessive intracellular calcium.

    4. Excessive neural firing due to an effect on the neuronal sodium channel.

    5. Reactive metabolites that bind DNA.



    45. The significance of the interaction of a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon (PAH) such as benzopyrene with the Ah receptor is that:

    1. The risk of chronic toxicity from the PAH is diminished.

    2. The expression of Phase II conjugating enzymes is increased.

    3. Clearance of the PAH by reduction reactions is increased.

    4. The rate of conversion of the PAH to mutagenic metabolites is increased.

    5. Binding of the PAH-Ah receptor complex to DNA causes frame-shift mutagens.



    46. A factor which significantly contributes to the toxic risk of DDT-like pesticides is:

    1. High vapor pressure.

    2. Affinity for androgen receptors.

    3. Mutagenicity.

    4. Chemical stability and high lipophilicity.

    5. Developmental neurotoxicity.



    47. The preferred treatment for chronic lead poisoning is:

    1. Anti-anxiety agents.

    2. Environmental decontamination and chelating agents.

    3. Fluoride ions.

    4. Emesis and alkalinization of the urine.

    5. Bronchodilators.



    48. The EPA is responsible for collecting toxicity data and setting exposure limits for which of the following:

    1. Disinfectants in the hospital setting.

    2. Over the counter drugs available in residences.

    3. Carcinogenic metal particulates in the ambient air within a factory.

    4. Mercury in dental amalgams.

    5. Pesticides released into the environment and chemicals added to the water supply.



    49. A reduction of blood supply to the brain or spinal cord:

    1. Is of little importance because of the extensive collateral circulation present in nervous tissue.

    2. Is of little importance if the ischemic episode lasts for no more than 30 minutes.

    3. Reduces neural activity as nervous tissue is highly dependent upon aerobic metabolism, thus causing a stroke.

    4. Initiates a process of excitotoxic cell death by triggering the release of neuropeptide toxins.

    5. Initiates a process of excitotoxic cell death by causing the release of glutamate.



    50. The steroid-based drug candidate pregnanolone hemisuccinate:

    1. Is unlikely to be neuroprotective as it carries a full negative charge and cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

    2. Will probably be useful at protecting neurons located within the core of the infarct.

    3. Is probably neuroprotective, because it enhances NMDA receptor activity.

    4. Is probably neuroprotective, because it inhibits NMDA receptor activity.

    5. Is probably neuroprotective, because it acts at the oxidation-reduction site on the NMDA receptor.

  2. #2
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    i have answers too but plz first try without answers...

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    could u please post the answers too so that we could check our answers thanks.
    An apple a day keeps the doctors away

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    answers?!!

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    Hi sunny kothiwala...think you should post the answers but hide them so those who have worked on the exam can check their answers afterwards...Or those who have worked on the questions can PM him/her...

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    Default ANSWERS: sorry for delay

    sorry for delay...i m busy with my exams...gud luck
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  7. #7
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    thanx a lot buddy you helped me ,,i was getting tensed about pcology

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