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Thread: MCQs in ophthalmology

  1. #1
    Asrafee's Avatar
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    Default MCQs in ophthalmology

    MCQs in ophthalmology




    abnormalities of the optic lens are recognised in

    A.homocystinuria
    B.hypoparathyroidism
    C.dystrophia myotonia
    D.wilsons disease
    E.congenital rubella

    [HIDE]answ...ABCDE.... [/HIDE]-------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Recognized features of diabetic retinopathy include:


    A flame haemorrhages
    B arteriovenous nipping
    C new blood vessels overlying the optic discs
    D macular degeneration
    E macular oedema

    [HIDE]true:
    ace
    comment Diabetic retinopathy is associated with exudates (cotton wool spots and hard exudates), haemorrhages, macular oedema, venous changes and neovascularisation. AV nipping is associated with hypertensive retinopathy. [/HIDE]


    -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    When considering diabetic retinopathy which of the following statements is
    most accurate:



    1) Microaneurysms represent sacular dilatation of retinal arterioles
    2) Hard exudates represent calcium deposites in the retina
    3) Cotton wool spots represent infarcts of the nerve fibre layer of the retina
    4) Haemorrhages close to the fovea are not potentially sight threatening
    5) Laser photocoagulation is applied directly to new vessels to destroy them

    [HIDE]true:
    3

    MAs are capillary aneurysms.
    HEs are collections of exudated lipid and protein.
    C is correct, multiple CWS are a pre-proliferative sign.
    Haemorrhages (or HEs) close to the fovea represent a risk of macular oedema
    and are therefore sight threatening
    Laser destroys ischaemic but viable retina to reduce the secretion of
    angiogenic growth factors and allow new vesel regresion, it is not applied
    directly to new vessels as this would cause bleeding. [/HIDE]

    -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    A 30-year-old female presents to the eye clinic with an acute history of pain and blurring in the right eye. Examination reveals a visual acuity of 6/36 in the right eye but 6/6 in the left eye, a central scotoma in the right eye, with a right swollen optic disc.

    What is the most likely diagnosis?



    1) Compression of the optic nerve
    2) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
    3) Glaucoma

    4) Optic neuritis
    5) Retinal vein occlusion

    [HIDE]true:
    4
    The acute presentation with central scotoma, reduced visual acuity and a swollen optic disc in a young female suggests a diagnosis of MS with a retrobulbar neuritis.[/HIDE]

    -------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    left homonymous hemianopia may be caused by which of the following lesions:

    A A lesion of the optic chiasm

    B A lesion of the right occipital lobe

    C Right Optic Neuritis

    D An attack of migraine

    E Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery

    [HIDE]true
    bde
    Comments:
    A left homonymous hemianopia would be associated with a right occipital lobe lesion and also with migraine. The optic chiasmal lesion is likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia. The anterior cerebral artery supplies the frontal lobes and the superior aspect of the brain and may be associated with a homonymous hemianopia. [/HIDE]-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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  2. #2
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    POST MORE MCQ'S plzzzz

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    EYE EMERGENCIES:

    Which of the following conditions does NOT require emergency ophthalmological management?

    Anterior uveitis
    Acute angle-closure glaucoma
    Orbital floor fracture
    Orbital cellulitis
    Corneal ulcer


    2. Which of the following is contraindicated in the early management of a patient with hyphema?

    Steroids
    Cycloplegics
    IOP lowering agents
    Frequent visits to the ophthalmologist
    None of the above

    3. A 40 year old lady complains of left eye redness of 2 days duration associated with photophobia and watery discharge. She reports history of URTI that started one week ago.

    On exam: vision OU= 20/20. Cornea reveals multiple dendritic lesions that

    stain well with fluorescein as well as superficial punctate keratitis.

    Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

    Topical antibiotics (Fucithalmic)
    Topical antibiotics + patching
    No antibiotics, no patching
    Only patching
    None of the above




    4. Which of the following is NOT a feature of acute anterior uveitis?

    Eye pain
    Keratic precipitates
    Busacca nodules
    Ciliary injection
    Mid-dilated pupil


    5. Which of the following is specific for the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis?
    Eye redness
    Itching
    Foreign body sensation
    Excessive lacrimation
    None of the above



    CORNEA/EXTERNAL DISEASES

    Which of the following is true about keratoconus?

    It is classified as a corneal dystrophy resulting in severe corneal thinning
    It is associated with many systemic conditions including Down’s syndrome.
    It is a progressive condition that leads to increasing degrees of hyperopia.
    Only A and B
    All of the above


    2. Indications for penetrating keratoplasty include all of the following EXCEPT:

    Advanced keratoconus
    Macular dystrophy
    Thick central corneal scar
    Perforating corneal ulcer
    Age-related macular degeneration


    3. Corneal grafts cannot be collected from donors if the following condition(s) exist(s) in the donor:

    Presence of AIDS
    History of cataract surgery
    Death of unknown origin
    Death of more than 10 hours duration
    All of the above


    4. Treatment of blepharitis might include:

    Lid hygiene
    Topical erythromycin
    Systemic doxycycline
    A and B only
    All of the above


    5. Which organism is the most common cause of blepharitis?

    Staphylococcus aureus
    Staphylococcus epidermidis
    Streptococcus
    Pseudomonas
    Hemophilus influenzae


    6. Slit-lamp findings in vernal catarrh include all of the following EXCEPT:
    Conjunctival injection

    Giant papillae
    Herbert’s pits
    Tranta’s dots
    Shield ulcers


    7. Presenting symptoms of viral conjunctivitis do NOT include:

    Watery discharge
    Diffuse conjunctival injection
    Foreign body sensation
    Pain
    Itching


    8. Corneal topography can be used for:

    Diagnosing keratoconus
    Before cataract surgery to determine the curvature of the cornea
    Before photorefractive surgery
    Detecting astigmatism
    All of the above


    9. Which of the following is the first line management of keratoconus?
    Soft contact lenses
    Hard contact lenses
    Penetrating keratoplasty
    A and B only
    All of the above


    10. Complications of contact lens wear include all of the following EXCEPT:
    Superficial punctate keratitis
    Corneal ulceration
    Giant papillary conjunctivitis
    Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
    Superior limbal keratitis


    11. Drugs that cause corneal deposits include all EXCEPT:
    Phenothiazines
    Thiazides
    Amiodarone
    Chloroquine
    Hydroxychloroquine



    NEUROOPHTHALMOLOGY:


    A patient with optic neuritis usually presents with:

    Decreased vision
    Eye pain
    Positive APD
    Pale optic nerve head
    All of the above


    2. Papilledema differs from optic neuritis in which of the following?

    It is usually bilateral
    It is more common in females
    It is accompanied with eye pain and blurring of vision
    It is associated with color vision defects
    It may resolve without any treatment


    3. Third nerve (oculomotor nerve) palsy in diabetics is characterized by:

    Ptosis
    Abnormal pupillary reaction
    Normal pupillary reaction
    A and B
    A and C
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  4. #4
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    Where are the answers gaurav...?

  5. #5
    Dr.Mohammad is offline MedicalGeek Verified
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    thank you

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    1. Dorsal ganglia:
    a. satellite cells in the ganglion
    b. all neurones are pseudo-unipolar
    c. unmyelinated fibres are found
    d. have multiple synapses
    2. Schwann cells:
    a. separate from neurone by endoneurium
    b. can cross several nodes of Ranvier
    c. contains a high concentration of mitochondria
    d. produces myelination for peripheral neurones
    e. arise from neural crest

    3. Pyramidal tract:
    a. complete decussation above the level of foramen magnum
    b. complete myelinated at birth
    c. contains fibres from cerebellum

    4. Intake of 200g of glucose would:
    a. increase glycogen synthesis in both muscle and liver
    b. inhibits gluconeogenesis from protein
    c. inhibits liponeogenesis
    d. increase protein breakdown
    e. reduce utilization of glucose of muscle

    5. Corneal transparency depends on:
    a. metabolic pump in endothelium
    b. zonular occludens in endothelium
    c. glycosaminoglycans in stroma
    d. irrigation by calcium free solution in anterior chamber during operation
    e. irrigation by bicarbonate free solution in anterior chamber during operation

    6. Insulin:
    a. is essential in glucose absorption by the gut
    b. inhibit lipid synthesis from carbohydrate
    c. is metabolized by enzymes of liver
    d. is partially controlled by somatostain from islet delta cells
    e. actively transport potassium into the cells

    7. pH 7.25, Pa CO2 3.3 kPa, PaO2 12kPa is compatible with:
    a. diabetic ketoacidosis
    b. hysterical overbreathing
    c. administration of ammonium chloride
    d. vomiting because of pyloric obstruction
    e. severe diarrhoea

    8. Choroid plexus is present in:
    a. anterior horn of lateral ventricle
    b. inferior horn of lateral ventricle
    c. aqueduct
    d. third ventricle
    e. fourth ventricle

    9. Cushing syndrome causes:
    a. obesity
    b. hirsutism
    c. hypokalaemia
    d. clubbing of fingers
    e. osteoporosis

    10. PCR:
    a. in-vitro enzymatic amplification of specific DNA
    b. useful in the diagnosis of microbial and viral infection
    c. seldom have false positive because of high specificity
    d. can detect HIV before seroconversion
    e. cannot detect RNA

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    1. The medial wall of the orbit is formed by:
    a. the frontal process of the maxilla
    b. ethmoid bone
    c. lacrimal bone
    d. the greater wing of sphenoid
    e. the frontal bone

    2. Paranasal sinuses:
    a. the posterior ethmoidal sinuses open in the superior meatus
    b. the frontal sinus opens into the superior meatus
    c. the anterior ethmoidal sinus opens into the superior meatus
    d. the lymphatics of the anterior, middle and posterior ethmoidal sinuses all drain into
    the retropharyngeal nodes
    e. the medial wall of the maxillary sinus is formed solely by the maxilla

    3. Skull:
    a. maxillary nerve enters the pterygopalatine fossa via the foramen ovale
    b. the middle meningeal artery goes through the foramen spinosum in the middle cranial
    fossa
    c. the greater petrosal nerve goes through the foramen rotundum before forming the
    nerve of pterygoid canal
    d. the jugular foramen transmits the inferior petrosal sinus, the ninth, tenth, eleventh
    cranial nerves and the large sigmoid sinus from front to back
    e. the lesser petrosal nerve enters the foramen ovale

    4. Vascular supply of the eyeball:
    a. anastomosis exists between the dorsal nasal branch of ophthalmic artery and the
    angular artery fo the facial artery
    b. anastomosis exists between recurrent meningeal branch of the lacrimal artery and
    the middle meningeal branch of the internal maxillary artery
    c. the cilio-retinal artery present in 50% subjects will enter the retina on the temporal
    side of the optic disc
    d. most venous blood from the eyeball drain into the superior ophthalmic vein and
    enters the cavernous sinus via the inferior orbital fissure
    e. the integrity of both retinal and choroidal circulation are required for vascular supply
    to the eye

    5. Hypokalaemia occurs in:
    a. Addison's disease
    b. Conn's syndrome
    c. starvation
    d. vomiting
    e. surgical trauma

    6. The following structures are mesodermal in origin:
    a. the dilator muscle fo the iris
    b. the iris stroma
    c. the ciliary muscle
    d. the ciliary epithelium
    e. levator palpebrae superioris

    7. The following are situated in the dorsal midbrain:
    a. nucleus of Cajal
    b. nucleus of the posterior commissure
    c. rostral interstitial nucleus of the medial longitudinal bundle
    d. third cranial nerve nucleus
    e. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

    8. Abnormal colour vision may be found in patients on treatment with:
    a. digitalis
    b. chloroquine
    c. gold
    d. indomethacin
    e. isoniazid

    9. The following statements are true:
    a. the larger the sample size, the greater the standard error
    b. a value of p<0.01 is less significant then p>0.01
    c. data which is non-parametric is assumed to be normally distributed
    d. in a t-test, the null hypothesis is assumed in all cases
    e. in a normal distribution the mean, mode and median are equal in value

    10. Molluscum contagiosum:
    a. is most common in young adults
    b. is caused by infestation with lice
    c. lesions are waxy nodules
    d. may primarily involve the lid skin or conjunctiva
    e. infected cells contain eosinophilic inclusion bodies.

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    1. Vitamin B12:
    a. absorption affected in achlorhydria
    b. absorption requires intrinsic factor synthesized by body of stomach
    c. deficiency occurs if the parietal cells are lost
    d. deficiency causes hypersegmentation of the neutrophil nucleus
    e. increased mean cell volume of the erythrocytes occurs in deficiency
    2. The following antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis:
    a. vancomycin
    b. gentamicin
    c. polymyxin
    d. sulphonamides
    e. cephalosporin

    3. Lid tumours with malignant potential include:
    a. neurofibroma
    b. basal cell papilloma
    c. senile keratosis
    d. keratoacanthoma
    e. solar keratosis

    4. Corneal dystrophy containing amyloid include:
    a. Avellino dystrophy
    b. lattice dystrophy
    c. granular dystrophy
    d. macular dystrophy
    e. Schyneder dystrophy

    5. Saccadic eye movements:
    a. may be vertical
    b. may be torsional
    c. may occur during sleep
    d. the velocity may be voluntarily controlled
    e. maximum velocity is 2000 per second

    6. The following structures are situated in the dorsal midbrain:
    a. nucleus of Cajal
    b. nucleus of the posterior commissure
    c. rostral interstitial nucleus of the medial longitudinal bundle
    d. third cranial nerve nucleus
    e. Edinger-Westphal nucleus

    7. The following are are mesodermal in origin:
    a. the dilator muscle of the iris
    b. the iris stroma
    c. the ciliary muscle
    d. the ciliary epithelium
    e. levator palpebrae superioris

    8. Extraocular muscles:
    a. have a sensory nerve supply
    b. have microscopic appearance similar to striated muscles
    c. lateral rectus is supplied in part by the lacrimal artery
    d. inferior rectus is supplied in part by the infra-orbital artery
    e. the lateral rectus has the smallest muscle mass

    9. The following are true about enzymes:
    a. cyclooxygenase converts leucotriene into arachidonic acid
    b. aldose reductase converts glucose to sorbitol
    c. aldose reductase converts galactose to dulcitol
    d. tyrosinase converts DOPA to dopqauinone
    e. galatose kinase converts galactose-1-phosphate to glucose-1-phosphate

    10. Corynebacterium:
    a. is Gram positive coccus
    b. are a constituent of the normal commensal population in the conjunctival sac
    c. causes membranous conjunctivitis
    d. is a recognized cause of phlyctenular conjunctivitis
    e. is widely resistant to antibiotics

  9. #9
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    1. Abnormal colour vision may be in patients on treatment with:
    a. digitalis
    b. chloroquine
    c. gold
    d. indomethacin
    e. isoniazid
    2. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
    a. homocystinuria
    b. Marfan's syndrome
    c. Fabry's disease
    d. dystrophia myotonica
    e. Best's macular dystrophy

    3. X-linked inheritance is seen in:
    a. tritanopia
    b. deuternomaly
    c. oculocutaneous albinsim
    d. choroideremia
    e. histiocytosis X

    4. The refractive index of the following exceed that of the cornea:
    a. crystalline lens cortex
    b. crystalline lens nucleus
    c. aqueous humour
    d. vitreous humour
    e. crown glass

    5. Light:
    a. may be absorbed by the normal human lens
    b. rays may be deviated by collagen fibres of the cornea
    c. composed of waves exactly in phase is termed polarized
    d. of one pure wavelength is termed collimated
    e. diffraction is caused by the cornea

    6. The following statements about standard deviation are true:
    a. standard deviation of sample is the same as population standard deviation
    b. standard deviation equals the square of the variance
    c. 95% of observations lie within one standard deviation of the mean
    d. the standard deviation depends on the number of observations
    e. the standard deviation always has a positive value

    7. The following are true:
    a. the larger the sample size, the greater the standard error
    b. a value of p<0.01 is less significant than p>.01
    c. data which is non-parametric is assumed to be normally distributed
    d. in a t-test, the null hypothesis is assumed in all cases
    e. in a normal distribution, the mean, mode and median are equal in value.

    8. In the chi squared test:
    a. the value of chi-square may be negative
    b. the higher the chi-square value, the greater the significance
    c. the null hypothesis is assumed in all cases
    d. the difference between observed and expected frequencies is measured
    e. p<0.05 is conventionally accepted as significance

    9. The following are true about neurofibromatosis:
    a. it is an autosomal dominant condition
    b. auxillary freckles are pathognomonic
    c. pulsatile proptosis is a feature
    d. iris nodules called Lisch's nodules are composed of naevi
    e. cafe au lait spot may be the only sign

    10. Oculocardiac reflex:
    a. occurs at any age
    b. manifests as tachycardiac and high blood pressure
    c. is a response to extraocular muscle traction
    d. the efferent pathway is via third nerve
    e. premedication with atropine can abolish the reflex

  10. #10
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    1. Diazepam used in premedication of local analgesia gives the effects of:
    a. amnesia
    b. reduction of muscle tone
    c. disorientation
    d. depression of respiration
    e. emetic effects
    2. The surgical limbus of the eye:
    a. is defined by Schwalbe's line
    b. is posterior to the anatomical limbus
    c. incision along which will pass in front of trabecular meshwork
    d. incision along which will pass posterior to the canal of Schlemm
    e. is anterior to the conjunctival limbus

    3. The following are true about corneal ulcer:
    a. those due to Morexella Liquefaciens usually give rise to severe hypopyon
    b. with greenish exudate or hypopyon is a pathognomonic feature of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    c. if caused by pneumococcal usually spread from central to the periphery
    d. hypopyon is sterile in bacterial corneal ulcer with intact Descemet's membrane usually have sterile hypopyon
    e. hypopyon is sterile in fungal corneal ulcer with intact Descemet's membrane.

    4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is sensitive to:
    a. carbenicillin
    b. gentamicin
    c. cefuroxime
    d. ofloxacin
    e. chloramphenicol

    5. In treating CMV retinitis with foscarnet, the following complications may occur:
    a. thrombophlebitis
    b. hypercalcaemia
    c. haematological side effect
    d. cardiac arrhythmia
    e. renal dysfunction

    6. The following statements are true:
    a. chloramphenicol will give rise to optic neuritis
    b. visual field loss caused by ethambutol may improve 1 month after cessation of the drug
    c. the severity of nystagmus due to phenobarbitol is not dose-related
    d. chlorothiazide may give rise to xanthopsia
    e. retinal artery thrombosis may be a complication of oral contraceptive pill

    7. Actinomyces Israeli infection:
    a. involve lacrimal sac
    b. involve lung
    c. is an aerobic coccobacilli
    d. is commensal of nasal cavity
    e. involve ileocaecal region

    8. Which of the following drugs may cause optic atrophy:
    a. isoniazid
    b. chloramphenicol
    c. streptomycin
    d. sulfonamide
    e. rifampicin

    9. Which of the following statement is correct:
    a. most of the noradrenaline released from the sympathetic nerve vesicle is metabolized by the enzyme catechol--methyl transferase
    b. adrenaline can penetrate the corneal epithelium well and decrease aqueous humour production
    c. adrenaline may produce subepithelial deposit in conjunctiva
    d. phenylepherine hydrochloride is both a and b receptor agonist
    e. isoproterenol may constrict conjunctival blood vessel


    10. DNA virus include:
    a. adenovirus
    b. molluscum contagiosum
    c. cytomegalovirus
    d. measles
    e. mumps virus

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