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question

A 44-year-old Woman Who Has Had Multiple Sexual Partners For The Past 30 Years Has An Abnormal Pap Smear With Cytologic Changes Suggesting Human Papillomavirus Infection.

Without Treatment, She Is Most Likely To Develop Which Of The Following Lesions?



A Squamous Cell Carcinoma

B Non-hodgkin's Lymphoma

C Kaposi's Sarcoma

D Adenocarcinoma

E Leiomyoma



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answer / Explanation:

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(a) Correct.
Hpv Infection Leads To Dysplasias And Squamous Carcinomas In The Cervix. Hpv Is A Sexually Transmitted Infection.
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