Question


A 29-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners over the last 15 years has a routine physical examination with no abnormal findings. On pelvic examination, the cervix shows no abnormalities, but a Pap smear is taken and dysplastic cells are reported to be present. A cervical biopsy is performed and shows microscopic features of a minimal dysplasia (CIN 1) involving the cervical squamous epithelium.
Which of the following is the most appropriate statement to make to the patient regarding these findings?

A No further treatment is indicated

B Antibiotic therapy will be necessary

C You probably have widespread metastases

D Complete excision of the lesion is required

E You have inherited a BRCA-1 mutation

Answer / Explanation:

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(D) CORRECT.
Cervical dysplasia is a pre-neoplastic condition that has the potential to develop into a carcinoma if not treated.
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