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Thread: ALL INDIA PG ENTERANCE EXAM 2009 [Subjectwise Q/A]

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    Default ALL INDIA PG ENTERANCE EXAM 2009 [Subjectwise Q/A]


    1. Superior gluteal nerve supplies a/e

    a. gluteus medius
    b. gluteus maximus
    c. gluteus minimus
    d. tensor fascia lata

    ans. b. gluteus maximus

    2. Neural tube closure starts from

    a. Cervical
    b. Thoracic
    c. Lumbar
    d. Cranial

    ANS. a. cervical Ref Nelson 18th ed, p2443

    3. COMPOSITE MUSCLES are all except

    a. flexor digitorum superficialis
    b. flexor carpi ulnaris
    c. pectineus
    d. biceps femoris

    ans: b. flexor carpi ulnaris?

    4. Stenosis of subclavian artery is common in which part

    a. 1st part
    b. 2nd part
    c. 3rd part
    d. equal in all parts

    Ans: a. 1st part

    5. Which is not a branch of splenic art

    a. pancreatica magna
    b. short gastric a
    c.. hilar vessels
    d. rt. gastroepiploic

    ans d. rt. Gastroepiploic

    6. ALL are the content of deep perineal pouch except

    a. deep transverse perineal muscles
    b. sphincter urethrae
    c. root of penis
    d. dorsal nerve of penis

    ans c. root of penis

    7. Anatomical snuff box contain

    a. radial a
    b. brachial a
    c. interroseus a
    d. ulnar a


    8. gastrointestinal lymphoid tissue found in

    a. lamina propria
    b. submucosa
    c. mucosa
    d. serosa

    ANS SUBMUCOSA r 829 / Lamina propria ? Schwartz, greys page 1158 to 1159 the diagram

    9. chief cells are found in

    a. fundus
    b. neck
    c. pit
    d. body

    Ans: a. h 17th 1855/ c ?

    10. Structure closely related to anterior commisure

    a. orbit gyrus
    b. uncus
    c. optic chiasma
    d. limen insulae

    Ans: b.

    11. Medulla blood supply all except

    a. ant spinal
    b. bulbar
    c. basilar
    d. post cerebellar a

    Ans: c bdc 304

    12. Trochlear n true a/e

    a. supplies ipsilateral sup oblique
    b. longest intracranial n
    c. only nerve emerging dorsally from brainstem
    d. enters sup. Orbital fissure outside annulus of zinn

    Ans: a. h 17th 193/ b?

    13. urogenital diaphragm composed of a/e

    a. colles/scarpas? fascia
    b. deep transverse perinii
    c. perineal membrane
    d. sphincter urethrae

    Ans: a bdc 332

    14. arteriovenous shunt
    a. found in all organs
    b. involved in thermoregulation
    c. not under the control of ANS

    Ans: b

    15. superior middle alveolar artery is a branch of

    a. Palatal br of maxillary artery
    b. nasal br of maxillary artery
    c. inferior alveolar artery
    d. Mandibular artery

    Ans: a bdc 120

    16. pain sensitive structure in brain is

    a. middle cerebral artery
    b. choroidal plexus
    c. Dural sheath
    d. Falx cerebri

    Ans: b Ref-Hari16,85

    17. Secretory pathway to parotid a/e

    a. auticulotemporal nerve
    b. greater petrosal nerve
    c. tympanic plexus
    d. otic ganglion

    Ans: b. bdc 127

    18. most common muscle to be congenitally absent

    a. pectoralis major
    b. teres minor
    c. semimembranosus
    d. soleus / gastronemius

    Ans: a

    19. popliteal artery not easy to palpate because

    a. it is not superficial and not pass over prominent bony structure
    b. it is not superficial
    c. it does not pass over prominent bony structure

    Ans: a Norman L. Browse, An introduction to symptoms and signs of surgical disease, 1ed, p141

    20. spongy urethra drains into which node

    a. internal iliac
    b. superficial inguinal
    c. deep inguinal

    Ans: c. deep inguinal
    bdc 350

    21. congenital deformity of organ

    a. malformation
    b. deformation

    Ans: a

    22. sternberg camnal false is

    a. encephalocele
    b. can carry infectn to sphenoids
    c. lies medial and post to foramen rotundum
    d. lies lateral and ant to foramen rotundum

    Ans: d

    23. sleep is controlled by which centre

    a. thalamus
    b. hypothalamus
    c. putamen
    d. limbic cortex

    ans b. hypothalamus h 173

    24. sertoli cells function

    a. testosterone secretion
    b. seminal fluid secretion
    c. aid in spermiogenesis
    d. progesterone secretion

    ans c. aid in spermiogenesis h 17th 2312

    25. Which is seen in intrinsic pathway

    a. Factor XII / XIII?
    b. Factor XI
    c. Factor IX
    d. Factor VII

    ANS FACTOR XII r 128?? IX?

    26. intrinsic factor secreted by

    a. chief cells
    b. parietal cells
    c. fundus
    d. gastrin cells

    ans parietal cells gan 491

    27. when a person lies down which of the following occurs

    a. immediate increased venous return
    b. increased cerebral blood flow
    c. increased heart rate

    Ans: a. gan 617 632

    28. in fetus angiogenesis in eye promoted by a/e

    a. EGF
    b. TGF B
    c. FGF
    d. IL8

    Ans: c?

    29. Vasomotor centre of medulla true

    a. stimulated by only baroreceptor not chemoreceptor
    b. functional interaction with cardiovagal centre
    c. independent from hypothalamus

    Ans: b? GAN 604

    30. after starvation which site will have reduced glucose receptor

    a. brain
    b. rbc
    c. adipose tissue
    d. liver

    Ans: c. harper 27th 140

    31. angiotensin functions a/e

    a. vasodilatation
    b. increases thirst
    c. stimulates adh release
    d. stimulates aldosterone release

    Ans: a. gan 456

    32. renal Physiology a/e

    a. dct recieves hypoosmotic solution always
    b. afferent artery supplies glomerulus
    c. control of GFR by afferent and efferent artery
    d. 5% of cardiac output received by kidney

    Ans: a gan 708/ d?

    33. the following contractions of esophagus are stationary

    a. primary
    b. secondary
    c. tertiary
    d. quarternary

    Ans: c.

    34. facilitated diffusion is

    a. requires carrier transport
    b. along concentration gradient
    c. is a form of active transport
    d. requires creatinine phosphate

    Ans: a

    35. oxygen demand of heart

    a. increases proportionately with heart rate
    b. depends on systolic work/ duration of systole
    c. is negligible when heart is at rest
    d. is in constant relation with amount of work done

    Ans: b. g 575

    36. cyanosis does not occur in anaemia because

    a. certain min amount of reduced hb has to be present
    b. in anaemia oxygen saturation increases

    Ans: a gan 684

    37. hb dissociation curve is sigmoid because

    a. binding of oxygen to one molecule of hb increases the affinity of other oxygen molecules harper 27th 43

    38. Action potential starts in the initial segment of axon because

    a. unmyelinated
    b. has least threshold
    c. more ion channels
    d. neurotransmitter relesed in proximal end

    Ans: b.

    39. Cellular regulatory mechanisms by neighbouring cells a/e

    a. secretory vesicles
    b. gap junctions
    c. synapse
    d. enzymes

    Ans: b gan 491?

    40. Diastolic pressure head in aorta is due to

    a. Aortic wall elasticity
    b. muscular arterioles
    c. capillaries

    Ans: a gan 587

    41. paneth cell is rich in

    a. zinc
    b. lysozyme

    Ans: b. lysozyme gan 506,518 ??

    42. synovial fluid characteristics a/e

    a. formed by type a cells
    b. follows non Newtonian fluid kinetics
    c. viscosity is variable

    Ans: a.

    43. functions of T helper cells are all except

    a. cytotoxic
    b. help in antibody formation
    c. opsonisation
    d. helps memory B cells

    Ans: a gan 527

    44. central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to

    a. low O2
    b. low CO2
    c. high CO2
    d. H+ concentration

    Ans: d gan 675?? / c?

    45. blood flow to muscles is increased during exercise

    a. due to accumulation of active metabolites
    b Increased BP

    Ans: a gan 632

    46. energy expenditure in resting state by

    a. lean body mass
    b. heart rate
    c. adipose tissue

    Ans: a. HAR 486

    47. CAP in lac operon is an example of

    a. positive regulator
    b. negative regulator
    c. constitutive expression
    d. attenuation

    ans: a. positive regulator

    48. Following sds page elecrophoresis protein weight is found to b 100 kD. After treatment with mercaptoethanol it shows 2 bands of 20 kd and 30 kd widely separated in elecrophoresis pattern. True statement is

    a. the protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage
    b. it is a dimer of 2 subunits of 20 and 30 kd
    c. it is a tetramer containing 2 20kd and 2 30kd
    d. protein break up due to non covalent linkage

    Ans: c. q har27th24?

    49. Least polar of the following groups

    a. methyl
    b. carboxyl
    c. amino
    d. phosphate

    Ans: a

    50. lipoprotein lipase true a/e

    a. secreted by adipocytes
    b. secreted by myocytes
    c. does not need CII as cofactor

    Ans: c does not require apo c II as cofactor har 219

    51. after cutting DNA with restriction enzymes segments joined by

    a. dna ligase
    b. DNA polymerase

    Ans: a har 27th 336

    52. splicing is brought about by

    a. sn RNA
    b. m RNA
    c. r rna

    Ans: a. snRNA har 27th 31snRNA har 27th 319

    53. 2,3 disphosphoglycerate not increased in

    a. chronic anaemia
    b. chronic hypoxia
    c. inosine
    d. hypoxanthine

    Ans: d

    54. Acetyl Co A can't directly form

    a. Glucose
    b. triglyceride
    c. ketone

    Ans: a harper27th 139

    55. karyotyping used for

    a. chromosomal abnormalities


    56. Genomic imprinting

    57. oxidation reduction reaction occurs with a/e

    a. Hydroperoxidases
    b. perosidases
    c. oxidases
    d. dehydrogenases

    Ans a? har 96

    58. All of the following about glutathion true except

    a. Helps in conversion of haemoglobin to methaemoglobin

    59. micro RNA role

    a. RNA splicing
    b. gene regulation
    c. DNA confirmation

    Ans: b. harper 320

    60. A/E are traumatic asphyxia

    a. railway accident
    b. road traffic accident
    c. accidental strangulation
    d. stampede in crowd

    ans. c. accidental strangulation reddy 163

    61. stellate wound produced by

    a. contact wound
    b. from close range
    c. 2 meters range
    d. long range

    ans. a. contact wound reddy 111

    62. privileged communication

    a b/w doctor & patient
    b b/w doctor & concerned authority
    c b/w doctor & guardian
    d b/w doctor & court of law

    ans b/w doctor & concerned authority parikh 6th 1.34

    63. finger printing lost in

    a HIV
    b leprosy


    64. Caspers dictum is for

    a. identification of body
    b. time since death
    c. type weapon used

    Ans: b. reddy 85

    According to an old rule of thumb (Casper's dictum) one week of
    putrefaction in air is equivalent to two weeks in water, which is equivalent to eight weeks buried in soil, given the same environmental temperature.

    65. which organ is most commonly involved in blast injury

    a. lung
    b. liver
    c. intestines
    d. skeletal muscle

    Ans: a. parikh 4.184

    66. pedestrian injured in RTA with multiple abrasions due to

    a. primary impact
    b. secondary impact
    c. secondary injury
    d. tertiary impact

    Ans: c?

    67. abrasions can be confused with

    a. eczema
    b. chemical injury
    c. ant bite
    d. joules burn

    Ans: c ref-narayan reddy 22nd151 , parikh 4.3

    68. heat rupture due to high temperature

    a. regular rupture
    b. irregular rupture
    c. boold clotted
    d. vessels rupture

    Ans: b reddy 143

    69. endemic relapsing fever is caused by a/e

    a. B.duttonii
    b. B.hermsii
    c. B.recurrentis
    d. B.parkeri

    ans c. B. RECURRENTIS h 17th 1052

    70. non invasive diarrhoea a/e

    a. shigella
    b. b.cereus
    c. EIEC
    d. y.enterocolitica

    ans b.cereus h 17th 248

    71. maltese cross flourescence may be seen in

    a cryptococcus neoformans
    b blastomycosis dermatidis
    c penicillium maneffi
    d candida

    ans Cryptococcus

    72. enterovirus does not cause

    a. aseptic meningitis
    b. pleurodynia
    c. herpangina
    d. haemmorhagic fever

    Ans: d. h 1209

    73. all true except

    a. hypochlorite virucidal
    b. glutaraldehyde sporicidal
    c. phenol require organic material
    d. ethylene oxide is an intermediate grade agent

    Ans: c.

    74. Pasturella multocida infection by

    a. soil
    b. animal bite

    Ans: b h 801

    75. parvo virus B 19 false statement is

    a. can cross the placenta in only <10% cases
    b. dna virus
    c. causes anaemia

    Ans: a transplacental fetal infection incidence is <,10% h 17th 1116

    76. E157:O7 culture

    a. sorbitol mc konky media

    Ans: a. sorbitol mc konky media h 17th 942

    77. True about non typhoidal salmenellosis

    a. can be transmitted by eating poultry products
    b. can be diagnosed by blood culture better than stool sample
    c. quinolones are effective
    d. severe in neonates

    Ans: b. HAR 960 /d?

    78. Lambda phage a/e

    a. phage undergoes lytic cycle as it fuses with host
    b. lysogenic
    c. fuses with the host chromosome and remains dormant

    Ans: ?

    79. all are true except

    a. streptodornase breaks dna
    b. streptokinase is produced by A,C,G
    c. streptolysin o acts in reduced state only
    d. erythrogenic toxin is plasmid mediated

    Ans: d. anant 191


    80. The vaccine having highest efficacy

    a. measles
    b. tetanus
    c. pertusis
    d. BCG

    Ans: tetanus/ measles??

    81. Chemprophylaxis not used in

    a. cholera
    b. plague
    c. meningococal meningitis
    d. typhoid

    Ans: d. typhoid park 19th 106

    82. Which is the latest guideline used in calculating disability

    a. absentism from job
    b. economic productivity
    c. fever
    d. loss of sleep

    ans a. absentism from job

    83. incidence can be calculated by

    a. case control study
    b. cross section study
    c. prospective study
    d. retrospective study

    ans c. prospective study park 19th 71

    84. indian reference man has weight

    a. 70kg
    b. 50kg
    c. 60kg
    d. 55kg

    ans 60kg park 500

    85. When the variables follow standard distribution

    a. mean = median
    b. median = variance
    c. mean = 2 median
    d. standard deviation = 2 variance

    Ans: a. mean = median mahajan 6th ed 81

    86. Mode of transmission of Q fever

    a. Ticks
    b. Mites
    c. Aerosols
    d. Mosquito

    Ans: c. aerosols park 19th 252

    87. Vitamin A prophylaxis is the example of

    a. primordial prevention
    b. health promotion
    c. specific protection
    d. disability limitation

    ans c. specific protection park 19th 39

    88. finnish type nephrotic syndrome is due to

    a. nephrin gene
    b. alpha actinin
    c. TRP6
    d. PODOCIN

    ANS: a. nephrin gene

    89. imci includes a/e

    a. malaria
    b. resp infections
    c. diarrhoea
    d. TB

    ans: d. TB

    90. hiv maximum transmission

    a. homosexual
    b. heterosexual
    c. blood transfusion
    d. needle prick

    ANS: c. blood transfusion park 289

    91. all are analytical studies except

    a. field trials
    b case control
    c. cohort
    d ecological

    ANS: a. FIELD TRIAL park 19th 58

    92. baby friendly hospital all are true except

    a. breast feeding on demand
    b. initiates breast feeding within 4 hours of normal delivary
    c. allow mothers & infants to remain together 24 hours day
    d. train all health care staff

    ans: b. park 444

    93. intended outcome of a program not measurable in operational term and need not be achived at the end

    a. TARGET
    b. MISSION
    c. GOAL
    d. objective

    Ans: c?? d. park 721

    94. intended outcome of a program not necessary measurable in operational term need not be achived at the end

    a. TARGET
    b. MISSION
    c. GOAL
    d. objective

    Ans. c.??

    95. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls and out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys 20 needed surgery. so what is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery.

    a. 3/5
    b. 2/6
    c. 6/5
    d. 1/2

    Ans: a.

    96. latest WHO scale of disability

    a. IDEAS
    b. ICDH-…
    c. WHO-DAS

    Ans: a.

    97. DMS IV include benefit for

    a. schizophrenia
    b. bipolar affective disorder
    c. mental retardation
    d. dementia

    Ans: c.

    98. continous data is represented by

    a. histogram
    b. simple bar diagram
    c. linear plot
    d. multiple bar diagram

    Ans: a. mahajan 20

    99. all true about spread of infection except

    a. leptospirosis rat urine
    b. tetanus dust droplets
    c. listeria refrigerated food
    d. legionella aerosol

    Ans: b h 17th 898

    100. water sample estimation a/e

    a. clostridium perfringes spores denote recent contamination
    b. multiple tubes used to collect bacterial count
    c. …. is added to water to remove residual chlorine

    Ans: a park 580

    101. nutritional survey a/e

    a. 1 to 4 year mortality
    b. babies < 2.5 kg
    c. mother hb < 11.5

    Ans: c park 519

    102. crude birth rate a/e

    a. it is ratio
    b. good fertility indicator
    c. still born excluded

    Ans: a

    103. aedes mosquito a/e

    a. repeated biters
    b. eggs cannot survive more than one week without water
    c. transmit dengue
    d. incubation period in mosquito is 7-8 days

    Ans: a. park 625 / b?

    104. dengue hmgic fever caused by

    a. type 1 serotype
    b. reinfection with the same serotype
    c. reinfection with diff serotype

    Ans: c. h 1239

    105. simple random sampling

    a. everyone has equal chance of being drawn
    b. sample size eual to that of cluster sampling

    Ans: a. park 703

    106. preventive strategy in spread of aids a/e

    a. behaviour education
    b. treatment of STD
    c. antiretroviral treatment
    d. condoms

    Ans: c park 17th 357

    107. the following vaccine when contaminated causes toxic shock syndrome

    a. measles vaccine
    b. BCG
    c. DPT
    d. oral polio

    Ans: a. park 129

    108. late expanding phase of population

    a. birth rate stationary death rate falling
    c. birth rate lower than death rate
    c. falling death rates with low birth rate
    d. birth rate falls and death rates declines still further

    Ans: d. park 19th 379

    109. true statement of RDA

    a. average daily requirement of all nutrients
    b. average daily requirement of all nutrients except energy +/_ 2SD
    c. indicates adequacy of intake

    110. icd 10 includes all except

    a. lack of exercise
    b. alcoholism
    c. poisoning
    d. unhealthy food.

    Ans: c. poisoning is icd 9? D?

    111. Benign HTN

    a. hyaline aterioscelerosis
    b. cystic medial necrosis
    c. fibrinoid necrosis

    Ans: a.

    112. Chronic diseases depend on a/e

    a. dose response relationship
    b. temporal relationship
    c. biological plausability
    d. consistency

    Ans a. park 19th 84

    *(302). STEPS

    a. assessing risk factors of incidence of non communicable diseases
    b. assessing incidence of non communicable diseases
    c. assessing treatment compliance of non communicable diseases patients
    d. assessing rate of mortality of non communicable diseases

    Ans: ?

    113. Person with sub clinical folate def., following drugs will ppt folate def except

    a. alcohol
    b. chloroquine
    c. sulfasalazine
    d. phenytoin

    ans. b. chloroquine h 17th 649

    114. Drug which can be used in any degree of renal failure:

    a. Cefepime
    b. Cefoperazone
    c. Cephaloridine
    d. Cefuroxime

    Ans: b.

    115. Ifosamide belongs to which class

    a. Alkylating agents
    b. Antimetabolite
    c. Folate antagonists
    d. Plant alkaloids

    ans: a. alkylating agent katzung 882

    116. Rx of osteoporosis drug that both decreases bone resorption and increases bone deposition.

    a. ibandronate
    b. teriparatide
    c. strontium ranelate
    d. calcitonin

    ans stronsium ranelate ref-Harisson 17th edn,pg no 2407

    117. H2 hand foot syndrome caused by

    a. cisplatine
    b. mitomycine
    c. cytarabine
    d. capecitabine

    ans capecitabine

    118. which of the following is cell cycle specific

    a. ifosamide
    b. bleomycin
    c. cisplatin
    d. vincristine

    Ans: b. katzung 881?

    119. tacrolimus is

    a. hepatoxic
    b. nephrotoxic
    c. ototoxic

    Ans: b.

    120. Most effective drug in complicated falciparum malaria

    a. cloroquine
    b. quinine
    c. artisunate

    Ans: c h 1289

    121. Appetite stimulant a/e

    a. melanocyte stimulating hormone
    b. melanocyte corticotropic releasing hormone
    c. neuropeptide Y

    Ans: msh h 17th 464

    122. all of the following drugs are used in narrow angle glaucoma except

    a. duloxetine
    b. citalopram
    c. fluphenazine
    d. clozapine

    ans. ?

    123. valproate causes a/e

    a. weight gain
    b. alopecia
    c. liver damage
    d. osteomalacia

    Ans: d. kat 387

    124. all are the uses of lithium except

    a. major depression
    b. generalized anxiety disorder
    c. vascular headache
    d. neutropenia

    Ans: a

    125. amifostine is protective in a/e

    a. salivary gland
    b. skin
    c. GIT/ kidney
    d. CNS

    Ans: d

    126. the nephrotoxicity of cisplatin is increased by a/e

    a. rifampicin
    b. vancomycin
    c. gentamycin

    Ans: a.

    127. Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct

    a. Major depression and associated lethargy
    b. Narcolepsy
    c. Obstructive sleep apnea
    d. Shift work disorder

    Ans: c? h 178? q.[snip] 17 h.. d??

    128. bleomycin toxicity affects which type of cells

    a. type 1 pneumocyte
    b. type 2 pneumocyte
    c. endothelial cell.
    d. alveolar macrophage

    Ans: type 2 pneumocyte/ c?

    129. true about nitroglycerine/ nitric oxide? except

    a. hypotension and bradycardia
    b. vasodilation
    c. methaemoglobinemia

    Ans: a. kat 187

    130. topical mitomycin c is used in

    a. sturge weber
    b. laryngeal stenosis
    c. endoscopic angiofibroma
    d. skull osteomyelitis

    Ans: a/b

    131. Psammoma bodies seen in a/e

    a. Follicular ca thyroid
    b. RCC
    c. Serous cystadenoma
    d. Meningioma

    Ans. a. Follicular ca thyroid

    132. organelle that plays a pivotal role in apoptosis

    a. cytoplasm
    b. golgi complex
    c. mitochondria
    d. nucleus

    ans: c. mitochondria rob 29

    133. colon carcinoma a/e

    a. mismatch repair genes
    b. k ras
    c. b cantenin
    d. apc

    Ans: beta catenin h 17th 574

    134. coagulative necrosis is seen in

    a. gangrene
    b. tuberculosis
    c. sarcoidosis
    d. some fungal infection

    Ans: a/b?

    135. Seen in acute inflammation classically

    a. vasodilatation with increased vascular permeability
    b. vasoconstriction
    c. leucocyte margination

    Ans: a r 50

    136. 45 year old male had a chest pain. he died after 4 days. on postmortem intramural coagulation was found. Microscopically seen is

    a. neutrophils
    b. granulation tissue formation
    c. collagen and fibroblasts
    d. scar

    Ans: b. r 579?

    137. Basic defect in Hb S is

    a. altered function
    b. altered solubility
    c. altered stability
    d. altered O2 binding capacity

    Ans: b harper 27th 47? a. h 594 16th edn 91-1 table

    138. intestinal absorption test

    a. xylulose absorption
    b. fat in stools

    Ans: b. h 1877

    139. fatty content in breast is found in a/e

    a. traumatic fat necrosis
    b. galactocele
    c. hamartoma/ adenosis?
    d. seborrheic keratitis

    Ans: d?

    140. ageing true

    a. free radical injury
    b. accumulation of harmful mutations in somatic cells

    Ans: a. robbins 7th 42

    141. most bactericidal of these:

    a. cationic basic protein
    b. lactoferrin
    c. lysozyme
    d. reactive o2 species

    Ans: d. r 61,75

    142. clot stabilisation factor-13

    143. hypersensitive pneumonitis is type of

    a. type 3 hypersensitivity
    b. type 4 hypersensitivity

    Ans: b (Harrison)

    144. Hirsutism is caused by A/E

    a. cushing syndrome
    b. acromegaly
    c. hyperthyroidism
    d. hyperprolactinaemia

    Ans c. hyperthyroidism h 17th 301
    according to harrison hyperthyroidsm causes hirsuitism.answer should b hyperprolactinemia

    145. calcification of post spinal ligament a/e

    a. begins from thoracic level
    posterior longitudnal ligament
    b. some CT finding was given
    c. t1wi and t2w2 both are hypointense
    d. begins from lumbar level

    Ans: ?


    a. CD 117
    b. CD 34
    c. CD 45
    d. S100

    ANS: a. CD 117 r 827
    there is difference of percentage CD 117 PRESENT IN 95 % & CD 34 present in 60-80 %.

    147. which of the following pair is incorrect

    a. selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
    b. zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis
    c. increased calcium causes iron deficiency
    d. vitamin A deficiency occures after 6 months to 1 year of low vitamin a diet

    ans: b. Harrison 17th table 71-2??

    148. In obstructive azoopermia

    a. FSH & LH both increase
    b. FSH & LH both normal
    c. FSH decrease but LH increase
    d. FSH & LH both decrease

    ans b. FSH & LH both normal h 2314

    149. which nerve escapes entrapment synd

    a. femoral
    b. radial / common digital?
    c. tibial
    d. lat cut n of thigh

    ans femoral?? Tibial?

    150. hiv enters via

    a. cd4
    b. cd5
    c. cd6
    d. cd 56

    ANS a. CD4 h 17th 1139

    151. C wave in jvp is due to

    a. atrial contraction
    b. tricuspid valve bulging into right atrium
    c. right atrial filling
    d. rapid ventricular filling

    ans: b. tricuspid valve bulging into right atrium

    152. 4year old boy present with recurrent chest infections. Sweat chloride test was done showed values of 36 & 42. What is the next best investigation to confirm the diagnosis

    a. 72 hour fecal estimation
    b. CT chest
    c. trans epithilial nasal potential difference
    d. DNA analysis of delta f 508 mutation

    ans: c. trans epithelial nasal potential difference

    153. tuberous sclerosis triad HAVE a/e

    a.facial angiomatosis
    b mental retardation
    c seizures
    d rhabdomyoma

    ans: d rhabdomyoma h 2607

    154. a 29 year old male was taking oral hypoglycemic drugs and he never had ketonuria in his life . his grandfather had diabetes and his father who is only son of his grandfather did not have the disease. the type of DM the person can never have is

    a. pancreatic DM
    b. MODY
    c. type I
    d. type II

    ANS TYPE I DM h 2279?? mody??

    155. 24 year old male presenting with abdominal pain, rashes, palpable purpura, arthritis / foamy histiocytes and intense neutrophilic infilterates in a patient presenting with fever and lymphadenopathy ....diagnosis is

    a. HSP
    b. sweet synd
    c. meningococcimea / ENL
    d. hemochromatosis / rauf daufman disease

    ANS: Sweet synd??

    156. pulsating large liver seen in

    a TR
    b AR
    c MR
    d MS

    ANS TR h 1479

    157. Systolic thrill is heard in Ist and 2nd Intercostal space in all except

    a. Pink tetralogy of fallot
    b. Ebstein's anomaly
    c. valvular Pulmonary stenosis / tricuspid atresia?
    d. sub pulmonic VSD

    Answer: A) Pink tetralogy of fallot?? Ebsteins?

    the answer is ebstein's anomaly
    ref:ghai-in fallot's syst. thrill SEEN IN 30% CASES..

    158. Cardiac manifestations of HIV A/E

    a. Cardiomyopathy
    b. aortic aneurysm
    c. recurrent artrial emboli
    d. Cardiac tamponade

    Ans: b Ref-Hari17th,1174

    159. spastic paraplegia is caused by a/e

    a. vitb12 deficiency
    b. cervical spondylosis


    160. pseudoclaudication seen due to COMPRESSSION OF

    a. femoral A
    b. poplitial A
    c. cauda equina
    d radial A

    ans: c. cauda equina

    161. intermittent claudication

    a. pain in the limb
    b. pain on the start of walking
    c. pain at the end of walking
    d. pain on doing exercise

    Ans: d. h 1168

    162. 20yrs. old male with Hb-10 MCV 70 serum iron 65 serum ferritin 100 what is the diagnosis

    a. iron deficiency
    b. thallasemia trait
    c. folate deficiency
    d. b12 deficiency

    Ans: b.

    163. A girl aged 8yrs has been admitted for dialysis. She has serum K of 7.5meq/l. Which is the fastest way to reduce the hyperkalemia

    a. Kayexelate enema
    b. Infusion of insulin+glucose
    c. Iv calcium gluconate
    d. Iv NaHCO3

    Ans: b.

    164. Gut bacteria cant ferment

    a. cellulose
    b. pectin
    c. lignin
    d. starch

    Ans: a HAR 116 /d?? c. sabiston
    little starch is reaching the colon.. The bateria are not known to possess any amylase... They can act on cellulose to convert it to butyric acid.. Its only partial but it occurs..dreamanaesthesia

    165. Foreign body sensation in the eye with right knee swelling in a 29 yrs old man

    a. tb
    b. sarcoidosis
    c. reiters disease

    Ans: c h 17th 2113

    166. Immediately after eating dyspneoa, cyanosis and not being able to breath after few hours

    a. angioneurotic edema
    b. food stuck in larynx
    c. esophagus rupture
    d. MI

    Ans: a h 2066

    167. Multiple punched out lesions in skull in a 65 yrs old man, which is best or diagnosis

    a. serum electrophoresis
    b. calcium
    c. alp
    d. bone scan

    Ans: a. h 704

    168. Pauci immune glomerulonephritis in

    a. microangiopathic polyangitis
    b. alport
    c. sle
    d. HSP/ goodpasteurs?

    Ans: a rob 977 /d?

    169. Coombs positive anaemia in

    a. sle
    b. ttp

    Ans: a. h 659

    170. scarring alopecia caused by

    a. lichen planus
    b. androgenic alopecia
    c. alopecia areata
    d. tinea capitis

    ans a. lichen planus h 322

    171. all are direct cutaneous disease except

    a. psoriasis
    b. reiter’s disease
    c. lichen planus

    Ans: b h 2066

    172. involvement of sweat gland, dermal appendages and hair follicles with epitheloid granuloma

    a. lichen scrofulosum
    b. military tb
    c. papulonecrotic tuberculide

    Ans: a?

    173. hypercoagulability a/e

    a. burns
    b. hemmorhage
    c. infections
    d. surgery of 1 hr duration


    174. causes of DVT a/e

    a. OCP
    b. polycythaemia
    c. IBD
    d. PNH

    Ans: c/ d pnh h 660?

    175. features of pnh a/e

    a. DVT
    b. massive splenomegaly

    Ans : b massive splenomegally h 17th 661

    176. positive urinary anion gap a/e

    a. alcoholoic ketoacidosis
    b. diabetic ketoacidosis
    c. glue poisoning
    d. diarrhea

    Ans: d h 17th 290

    177. Which does not occur in RCC

    a. polycythemia
    b. cushings
    c. malignant HT

    Ans: c h 17th 592, rob 4 pg 1018

    178. incontinenti pigmenti

    a. 100% ocular problems
    b. x linked dominant
    c. skin lesions present
    d. associated with eye problems

    Ans: a.

    179. neurofibromatosis a/e

    a. autosomal recessive
    b. neurobifromas
    c. cataract
    d. scoliosis

    Ans: a.

    180. von hippel landau syndrome consists of a/e

    a. gastric cancer
    b. renal cell carcinoma
    c. phaechromocytoma
    d. cerebral and retinal haemangiomas

    Ans: a. r 1414

    181. necrotising fasciitis a/e

    a. most commonly due to group A beta haemolytic/ group b? streptococcus
    b. debridement is mandatory
    c. involves trunk and lower limbs

    Ans: a h 17th 801

    182. hepatitis C true statement is

    a. important cause for liver transplantation
    b. does not cause liver cancer
    c. dna virus
    d. doesn't cause coinfection with hbv

    Ans: a. h 1990

    183. restless leg syndrome seen in

    a. chronic renal disease
    b. hyperkalemia
    c. hypocalcemia

    Ans: a. h 174

    184. carpal tunnel syndrome caused by a/e

    a. hyperthyroidism
    b. acromegaly
    c. addisons
    d. cushing

    Ans: addisons h 2154

    185. a lady with temporal field defects, galactorrhoea, most probable cause

    a. pituitary macroadenoma
    b. craniopharyngioma

    Ans: a h 2202

    186. juvenile arthritis all are present except

    a. rheumatoid nodules
    b. uveitis
    c. fever

    Ans: a

    187. hepatomegaly is caused by a/e

    a. gauchers ds
    b. niemann pick
    c. hepatic porphyria
    d. hurlers ds

    Ans: c. harrison 2438

    188. recurrent laryngeal papillomatosis false

    a. most commonly by HPV 6 and HPV 11
    b. HPV 6 is more virulent
    c. caused by exposure during delivery in mothers birth canal
    d. HPV is a DNA virus


    189. all are true about eaton lambert syndrome except

    a. positive tensilon test
    b. spares bulbar and ocular muscles
    c. muscle contraction improves with repeated stimuli

    Ans: b.? h 2674 a?

    190. cystic fibrosis all are true except

    a. defect in calcium channel

    Ans: a

    191. Rheumatoid factor will give false positive tests with

    a. coombs test
    b. hbsag

    Ans: a

    192. chronic limb ischaemia true is

    a. rest pain
    b. pain on exercise

    Ans: a csdt 12th 798

    193. SIRS includes all except

    a. thrombocytopenia
    b. leucocytosis
    c. oral temperature > 38 degree C

    Ans: thrombocytopenia h 17th 1696

    194. all are true regarding Hb S except

    a. glutamine replaced by valine
    b. heterozygotes are protected against malaria
    c. increase in sticky patch due to substitution of nonpolar residue by polar residue
    d. single base substitution lead to RFLP

    Ans: c harper 27 47

    195. Chlamydia infection, true statement a/e

    a. can be cultured
    b. vaginal swab used for diagnosis
    c. symptomatic
    d. women taking ocp are carriers

    Ans: c?

    196. Angioneurotic edema false

    a. C 1 esterase deficiency
    b. Angiotensin converting enzyme deficiency
    c. pittin in nature

    Ans: c. pittin in nature h 17th 2066??

    197. hyperaldosteronism a/e

    a. metabolic acidosis
    b. hypokalemia
    c. hypernatremia
    d. hypertension

    Ans: a. h 17th 288

    198. Joint aspiration in acute gout shows

    a. monosodium urate crystals

    Ans: a

    199. won't be present in right heart failure

    a. increased PCWP
    b. pulsatile liver
    c. increased JVP

    Ans: a. r 563

    200. Best marker for stratification of cardiovascular risk

    a. Lp a
    b. homocysteine
    c. chlamydial antibody
    d. CRP

    Ans: a. park 306 / d?

    201. temporal arteritis true a/e

    a. can cause sudden b/l blindness
    b. in elderly women
    c. females more than males
    d. worsens on warmth exposure

    Ans: d. h 96

    202. False about mesial temporal lobe sclerosis

    a. obliteration of fornices
    b. hippocampal sclerosis
    c. distinction between grey n white matter is lost
    d. temporal lobe sclerosis

    Ans: ?

    203. hereditary hemochromatosis true except

    a. females more than males
    b. genetically heterogeneous
    c. complete penetrance
    d. phlebotomy is not done

    Ans: a?

    204. Not seen in Idiopathic pul haemosiderosis

    a. eosinopenia
    b. iron deficiency anaemia

    Ans: a eosinopenia r 746 /b?

    205. when patient with hyperglycemia is given insulin result is

    a. hypokalemia
    b. hyperkalemia
    c. hyponatremia
    d. hypernatremia

    Ans: b.? d H 2285

    206. International Prognostic Index of lymphoma a/e

    a. haemoglobin
    b. serum pr
    c. LDH

    Ans: d? h 17th 692

    207. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis false

    a. causative organism is tb

    Ans: causative organism is tb r 1001

    208. leptospirosis all except

    a. transmitted by rodent urine
    b. penicillin iv is tt in severe cases
    c. 5 to 15 percent mortality in severe cases
    d. antibody can b detected in a week

    Ans d har 1050

    209. positive hepatojugular reflux is found in conditions except

    a. tricuspid regurgitation
    b. right heart failure
    c. decreased afterload

    Ans : decreased afterload

    210. hypercalcemia a/e

    a. celiac disease
    b. hyperparathyroidism
    c. milk alkali
    d. sarcoidosis

    Ans: a h 2380,1880

    211. in a patient of acute myeloblastic leukemia with high leucocytosis what shouldn't be done

    a. hydration
    b. immediately start chemotherapy
    c. allopurinol
    d. alkalinsation of urine

    Ans: b. h 680

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    212. Smoking is not associated with which carcinoma

    a. Ca esophagus
    b. ca larynx
    c. ca nasopharynx
    d. ca urinary bladder

    Ans: c. Ca nasopharynx h 487

    213. Concomitant chemoradiotherapy given in A/E:

    a. T2N0M0 glottic ca
    b. stage 3b ca cervix
    c. ca anal canal
    d. nasopharyngeal ca

    Ans. a. T2N0M0 glottic ca / b?

    214. Focal diffuse gall bladder wall thickening with comet tail reverberation artifacts on USG is in

    a. xanthogranulomatosis cholecystitis
    b. adenomatous polyp
    c. adenomyomatosis
    d. gall bladder carcinoma

    ans c. adenomyomatosis

    215. in proteus infection

    a. Triple phosphate
    b. oxalate
    c. uric acid
    d. cystein

    ans: a. phosphate h 17th 1819

    216. lumber sympathectomy is of value in the management of all except

    a. arteriovenous fistula
    b. distal ischemia
    c. intermittent claudication
    d. anhidrosis

    ans: d. anhidrosis

    217. SEPS done for

    a. veins
    b. artery
    c. AV fistula
    d. Lymphatics

    Ans: a.

    218. Parastomal hernia MCC

    a. loop colostomy
    b. end colostomy
    c. loop ileostomy
    d. end ileostomy

    Ans: b.

    219. thyroid papillary ca 2cm. management

    a. near total thyroidectomy with rnd
    b. hemithyroidectomy
    c. total thyroidectomy with rnd

    Ans: c. csdt 285

    220. difference between follicular adenoma and carcinoma

    a. hurthle cell
    b. increased mitosis
    c. vascular invasion

    Ans : c h 17th 2245

    221. trauma patient with gcs score 15, bp 100/80 next step

    a. iv fluid with blood for cross matching
    b. immediate blood transfusion
    c. take him to OT immediately

    Ans: a. csdt 214

    222. In pancreatic transplant patient with bladder catheter which investigation to evaluate function

    a. urine amylase
    b. blood amylase
    c. blood glucose

    Ans: a. gray 1795

    223. Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm ruptures

    a. anteriorly
    b. posteriorly
    c. laterally
    d. intra peritoneally

    Ans: c? b. ref: bailey

    224. Regarding pancreatic cancer true a/e

    a. More than 75% have p53 mutations
    b. More common in people with familial pancreatitis
    c. 3-6 m survival in stage 3
    d. 15-20% survival on 5 yrs

    Ans: ?

    225. gold standard test to diagnose insulinoma

    a. c peptide levels
    b. 72 hrs fasting glucose
    c. glucose value < 32mg%

    Ans b.

    226. zenkers diverticulum true statement is

    a. it is outpouching of ant pharyngeal wall above the cricopharyngeus muscle
    b. barium swallow lateral view for diagnosis
    c. it is a true diverticulum
    d. it is congenital

    Ans b.

    227. triple assessment of cancer breast includes

    a. clinical examination, cytology/biopsy, mammography/USG
    b. FNAC, mammography, history

    Ans: a.

    228. small cell lung cancer true statement

    a. it is chemosensitive
    b. does not involve the bone marrow
    c. peripheral
    d. arises from alveoli

    Ans a. h 17th 561

    229. risk factor 4 GB Ca a/e

    a. >5mm polyp
    b. polyp with stones
    c. increase in size of polyp
    d. elderly

    Ans: a.

    230. best graft for surgery below inguinal ligament is

    a. reverse saphenous vein graft
    b. Dacron
    c. Ptfe

    Ans: a.

    231. Hashimoto's thyroiditis true a/e

    a. follicular destruction
    b. increase in lymphocytes
    c. orphan annie eye nucleus
    d. oncocytic cells

    Ans: c. h 2230

    232. which prevents colon cancer

    a. high fibre diet
    b. selenium
    c. antioxidants
    d. fatty food

    Ans: a.

    233. mc cause of superficial thrombophlebitis

    a. trauma
    b. infection
    c. i.v. line

    Ans: c csdt 12th 858

    234. thoracic outlet syndrome diagnosed by

    a. clinical examination
    b. ct scan
    c. X ray
    d. digital subraction angiography

    Ans: d DSA shows post stenotic dilatation which is definitive csdt12th 822
    a. 1489 h 16

    235. ICG angiography is primarily indicated in

    a. minimal classical CNV
    b. Occult CNV
    c. angioid streaks with CNV
    d. polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy

    Ans: b. Occult CNV

    236. malignancy in thyroid is indicated by all except

    a. collumnar cells in follicles/ irregular margins?
    b. microcalcification
    c. hypoechoiec
    d. hyperechoic?

    Ans: d?

    237. Moderate grade risk factor of Breast carcinoma

    a. atypical hyperplasia
    b. adenosis
    c. squamous metaplasia
    d. ……. metaplasia

    Ans: a. r 1130

    238. Colon carcinoma single most imp prognostic factor

    a. lymph node status
    b. site of lesion
    c. extent of lesion
    d. type of lesion

    Ans: lymph node status h 17th 575

    239. Myodesis is contraindicated in

    a. children
    b. tumor
    c. ischemia
    d. paralysis

    Ans: c. ischemia

    240. osteosarcoma, used all except

    a. high dose methotrexate
    b. cyclophosphamide, … , …
    c. vincristine
    d. Etoposide

    ANS d. ETOPOSIDE??/ c. vincristine

    241. which joint have least chances of recurrent dislocation

    a. shoulder
    b. hip
    c. patella
    d. ankle

    ans: ankle

    242. whats motorcyclist's fracture

    a. ring fracture
    b. skull divided into anterior & posterior half
    c. suture separation
    d. comminuted fracture

    ans: b. reddy synopsis 19th ed 129

    243. Rate of mineralisation of newly formed osteoid

    a. vonkossa staining for calcium
    b. alzarin red
    c. Labelled tetracycline
    d. Flourescence

    Ans: c.

    244. Milkman #

    a. pseudo#
    b. fracture of metatarsals
    c. fracture of distal end of radius
    Ans: a.

    245. Chronic low back pain treatment a/e

    a. pain management
    b. exercise
    c. remove the etiology
    d. bed rest for 3 months

    Ans: d h 17th 115

    246. Athletes pubalgia is

    a. abdominal muscle strain
    b. rectus femoris strain
    c. quadriceps strain
    d. gluteus maximus strain

    Ans: a.

    247. high tibial osteotomy all true except

    a. > 30 degree correction
    b. though cancellous bone
    c. high chance of recurrence

    Ans: a.

    248. what is the most common cause of death after total hip replacement

    a. infection
    b. deep vein thrombus?
    c. pulmonary embolism
    d. pneumonia

    Ans: c.

    249. vaginal delivery allowed in a/e

    a. monochorionic monoamniotic twins
    b. first twin cephalic and second breech
    c. extended breech
    d. mento anterior

    ans. a. monochorionic monoamniotic twin

    250. creamy and fishy odour vaginal discharge is seen in

    a. trichomonas vag
    b. candida albicans
    c. gardnerella vaginalis
    d. chlamydia trachomatis

    ans: c. h 17th 827

    251. Dysgerminoma marker

    a. beta hcg
    b. AFP
    c. LDH
    d.CA-A 19-9

    ans. c. LDH

    252. which is not primary amennorhoea

    a. sheehans synd
    b. kallmans synd
    c. mayer rokitansky kuster hauser synd
    d. turner syndrome

    ans a. sheehans syndrome

    253. contraceptive of choice in lactating female

    a. barrier
    b. lactational amenorrhoea
    c. ocps
    d. pop

    ans pop shaw 240 dutta 548

    254. Lupus anticoagulant true

    a. increase in aPTT only
    b. recurrent 2nd trimester abortion in pregnant females
    c. can occur without other symptoms of anti phospholipid antibody syndrome
    d. thrombotic spells/ severe life threatening haemorrage?

    Ans: b.

    255. para 3+0, 35yrs lady P3+0 cin3 . t/t

    a. LEEP
    b. hysterectomy
    c. conization
    d. cryotherapy

    ans. a. LEEP ? ref. csdt and novazek
    LEEP is rx of choice in CIN 2 n 3...... CGDT pg 840
    c. shaw 385 h 608

    256. mifepristone used in

    a. threatened abortion
    b. fibroid
    c. ectopic pregnancy
    d. molar pregnancy

    Ans: a? shaw 345 c? page 287 14th shaws

    257. 35 yr old F posted for laproscopic sterilisation a/e r CI for operation

    a. obesity
    b. heart disease
    c. hb<8
    d. hiatus hernia

    Ans: a C/I in extreme obesity not obesity shaw 238

    258. best non surgical treatment of stress incontinence

    a. pelvic floor muscle training
    b. bladder training
    c. electrical stimulation

    Ans: a csdt 1072

    259. the following drug can be given safe in pregnancy

    a. propylthiouracil

    Ans: a.

    260. all drugs can be given to a mother with lupus who is on 35th week of gestation except

    a. chloroquine
    b. methotrexate
    c. sulphadiazine/ sulphasalazine?
    d. prednisolone

    Ans: b/c?

    261. surgical staging of ovarian ca all done except

    a. peritoneal washing
    b. peritoneal biopsy
    c. mesenteric biopsy
    d. palpation of organs

    Ans: b peritoneal biopsy h 17th 605

    262. In which condition is the onset of condition to death the lowest

    a. post partum hmge
    b. antepartum hmge
    c. obstructed labour
    d. septicaemia

    Ans: a.

    263. DMPA benefits a/e

    a..3% failure rate in 1st year
    b. no increased endometrial carcinoma like OCP
    c. can be used in seizures
    d. can be given in sickle cell anaemia

    Ans: ?

    264. tamoxifen side effect a/e

    a. thromboembolism
    b. endometrial carcinoma
    c. opposite side breast carcinoma
    d. cataract

    Ans: c kat 671

    265. all r seen in eclampsia except

    a. ARF
    b. cerebral haemorrhage
    c. malignant hypertension/ pulmonary edema?
    d. DVT

    Ans: d? deep vein thrombosis dutta 234

    266. evidence based treatment for mennorrhagia are a/e

    a. ocp
    b. ethamsylate
    c. tranexemic acid
    d. progesterone 5 to 25 days cyclically

    Ans: d ? b? as it is given from 5 to 21day only..........ref jeffcot

    267. all are effect of estrogen except

    a. decreased HDL
    b. increased triglycerides
    c. increased LDL
    d. increased apolipoprotein

    Ans: a. kat 658

    268. HRT a/e

    a. it doesnt reduce the risk of osteoporosis in post menopausal women
    b. CI in DM
    c. dermal patch estrogen decreases the probability of thromboembolism than oral estrogen
    d. pre menopausal women can be given upto 50 yrs of age.

    Ans: a.

    269. pregnant woman, cervical lymph node +ve, in 1st trimester is given spiramycin & baby born with hydrocephalus. Infection was by

    a. HSV
    b. treponema pallidum
    c. rubella
    d. toxoplasmosis

    ANS TOXOPLASMOSIS h 1308??rubella??

    270. neonate response to acute hypoxia is

    a. tachycardia
    b. bradycardia
    c. cardiac arrest
    d. vent arrythmias

    Ans: a

    271. neuroblastoma all true except

    a. most common extracranial solid tumour in children
    b. >50% come with mets/ abd mass
    c. lung metastsis common
    d. involve aorta and branches at early stage

    Ans: c/d? opg 573

    272. A 5yr old male with bp 130/80 with enlarged phallus height 104 cm and developed pubic hair. levels of which will be diagnostic

    a. 11 deoxy cortisol
    b. deoxycorticosterone
    c. 17 oh progesterone
    d. aldosterone

    Ans: b

    273. child presents with progressive loss of developmental milestones, bites her fingers. Presents with head banging and writhing movements of hands. Most probable diagnosis

    a. hgprtase def
    b. adenosine deaminase def
    c. phenylalanine hydroxylase def

    Ans: a. har 308 (lesh nyhan synd)

    274. A 9 yr old girl having bleeding with prolonged aPTT but normal PT, diagnosis

    a. Haemophilia A
    b. Haemophilia B
    c. vonWillebrand's disease
    d. Factor V mutation

    Ans: c. h 723??

    275. a down syndrome patient is posted for surgery, the necessary pre-op investigation to be done is

    a. echocardiography
    b. ct brain
    c. x ray cervical spine
    d. USG abdomen

    Ans: a/c?

    276. a female child was brought with complaint of generalised swelling of her body. She was passing fatty cast in her urine. No haematuria. The true statement is

    a. no IgG or C3 deposition seen on renal biopsy
    b. her C3 levels could be low
    c. IgA nephropathy is likely
    d. alport syndrome

    Ans: b?

    277. childhood renal polycystic disease true a/e

    a. autosomal dominant
    b. renal and hepatic cysts

    Ans: a h 17th 1796

    278. limb defects with scarring of skin in new born

    a. varicella virus
    b. hsv
    c. herpes simplex
    d. syphilis

    Ans: a. varicella

    279. Wilm's Tumor prognostic staging

    a. National Wilm tumor study group
    b. AJCC
    c. TNM
    d. International Society of Pediatric Oncology

    Ans: a? d

    280. HepB infected neonate given

    a. both Vaccine and Immunoglobulin

    Ans: a

    281. The most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume in the pediatric patient is

    a. heart rate
    b. preload
    c. stroke volume
    d. cardiac output

    Ans: a.

    282. a 6 year old girl comes with dyspnea and cough... after primary treatment she was sent home.. a weak later the whole lung on right side was opacified on cxr... what's probable diagnosis

    a. foreign body aspiration
    b. pneumonia
    c. bronciolitis obliterance
    d. pleural effusion

    Ans: a. CSDT 1311

    283. ventral neural tube defect marker is

    a. phoshphatidyl esterase
    c. acetyl choline esterase

    Ans: c.

    284. trotters triad have all except

    a. deafness
    b. palatal palsy
    c. trigeminal neuralgia
    d. seizures

    ans : d. seizures

    285. meningitis leads to vestibulitis through

    a. hyrtle fissure
    b. endolymphatic sac
    c. cochlear aqueduct
    d. vestibular aqueduct

    Ans: c

    286. Laryngeal pseudosulcus true is

    a. due to vocal abuse
    b. laryngeal reflux
    c. tb

    Ans: ?

    287. true about juxta foveal telengiectasia a/e

    a. variant of coats
    b. macular telengiectasia
    c. seen in diabetes mellitus
    d. structural abnormality is seen in vessels

    Ans: ?

    288. Which of these is not done in advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy

    a. Removal of epiretinal membranes
    b. Vitrectomy
    c. Exo-photocoagulation
    d. Reattachment of retina

    Ans: a.? c. parson 20th 297?

    289. uveal effusion seen in a/e

    a. myopia
    b. abnormal scleral structure
    c. scleritis
    d. cilio-choroid can get separated

    Ans: ?

    290. Carotid artery emboli and CRVO are differentiated by

    a. Dilated veins
    b. Tortuous veins
    c. ophthalmodynamometry
    d. arterial pressure

    Ans: c

    291. LDH increased in vitreous humor in

    a. retinoblastoma
    b. galactosemia
    c. glaucoma

    Ans: a. khurana 4th 282

    292. visual cycle true is

    a. condensation of opsin with aldehyde of retinol
    b. NADP is reduced
    c. NAD is reduced
    d. hydrolysis of visual purple/ combination of opsin with retinol to form visual purple?

    Ans: a/d?

    293. Successful paravertebral block given by anaesthetist can go to a/e

    a. epidural space
    b. subarachnoid space
    c. paravertebral space
    d. intercostals space

    ans: b. subarachnoid space

    294. Signs of successful Stellate block A/E

    a. Unilateral Nasal stuffiness
    b. Guttman sign
    c. Miosis
    d. Bradycardia

    ans: d. Bradycardia

    296. sodium bicarbonate added as adjuct to local Anaesthesia because

    a. quick onset and longer action
    b. delayed onset and longer action
    c. shorter duation of action
    d. for rapid removal

    Ans: a katjung 10th 419

    295. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia

    a. Coronary angiography
    b. MUGA scan
    c. Thallium scan
    d. Resting ECHO

    ans c.thallium scan ref: h 17th 1519

    297. investigations of choice for DUCTAL CARCINOMA IN SITU


    Ans: b?

    298. Mammography less sensitive in young women because

    a. less gland & more fat
    b. more glandular and dense
    c. uncooperative

    Ans: b.

    299. adrenal adenoma shows a/e

    a. hypoechoic on non contrast ct
    b. contrast appears early and washes out late
    c. regular border
    d. microcalcification/ b/l glands enlarged?

    Ans: ?

    300. pulmonary artery pruning seen in

    a. pulmonary HT
    b. pulmonary edema

    Ans: a h 1576

    301. child fell down and became unconscious. Breathing and ventilation checked. Next step is

    a. check the pulse
    b. give cpr
    c. secure proper airway

    Ans: a?

  3. #3
    Join Date
    Apr 2007
    Rep Power

    Default All India Pre Pg 2009 Que/ans


    Q1. All is true about trochlear nerve except:
    a- Longest intracranial course
    b- Arise from dorsal aspect
    c- Supplies ipsilateral oblique
    d- Arises from out side the common tendinous ring
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Urogenital diaphragm is contributed by all except:
    a- Sphincter urethra
    b- Perineal body
    c- Colles’ fascia
    d- Perineal membrane
    Ans: c.

    Q3. All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except:
    a- Bulb/Root of penis
    b- Dorsal nerve of penis
    c- Sphincter urethra
    d- Bulbourethral glands
    Ans: a.

    Q4. Neural tube begin to close from which region
    a- Cranial
    b- Cervical
    c- Thoracic
    d- Lumbar
    Ans: b.

    Q5. All is true for Sternberg canal except:
    a- Anterior and medial to foramen rotundum
    b- Posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum
    c- Cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele
    d- Can carry infection to sphenoidal sinus
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of:
    a- Mandibular
    b- Facial
    c- Lingual
    d- Maxillary
    Ans: d.

    Q7. All of the following arteries supply medulla except:
    a- Posterior inferior cerebellar
    b- Basilar
    c- Anterior spinal
    d- Bulbar
    Ans: d.

    Q8. GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is present in:
    a- Submucosa
    b- Lamina propria
    c- Muscularis mucosa
    d- Adventita/Serosa
    Ans: b.

    Q9. All are pain sensitive area of brain except:
    a- Dural sinuses
    b- Middle meningeal artery
    c- Falx cerebri
    d- Choroid plexus
    Ans: d.

    Q10. Superior gluteal nerve supplies all except:
    a- Gluteus minimus
    b- Gluteus medius
    c- Tensor fascia lata
    d- Gluteus maximus
    Ans: d.

    Q11. Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in part:
    a- 1st b- 2nd
    c- 3rd d- Terminal
    Ans: a.

    Q12. All are branches of splenic artery except:
    a- Short gastric
    b- Hilar
    c- Arteria pancreatica magna
    d- Right gastroepiploic
    Ans: d.

    Q13. Artery in anatomical snuff box:
    a- Radial
    b- Brachial
    c- Ulnar
    d- Interosseous
    Ans: a.

    Q14. All are composite muscles except:
    a- Pectineus
    b- Flexor carpi ulnaris
    c- Biceps femoris
    d- Flexor digitorum profundus
    Ans: b.

    Q15. Spongy part of the male urethra drains via which lymph nodes:
    a- Superficial inguinal
    b- External iliac
    c- Deep inguinal
    d- Aortic
    Ans: c.

    Q16. Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated substances?
    a- Uncus
    b- Limen insulae
    c- 3rd ventricle
    d- Optic chiasma
    Ans: b.

    Q17. Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid come from all except:
    a- Otic ganglion
    b- Greater petrosal nerve
    c- Auriculotemporal nerve
    d- Tympanic plexus
    Ans: b.

    Q18. Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because:
    a- It is not over prominent bone
    b- Pulse is weak
    c- It is deep seated
    d- It is both deep seated and not over prominent bone
    Ans: c.

    Q19. Chief cell are found in:
    a- Fundus
    b- Pit
    c- Neck
    d- Body
    Ans: a.

    Q20. Not true about shunt vessel is:
    a- It control temperature regulation
    b- It is direct communication between artery and veins
    c- It is under control of local mediators
    d- It is not under autonomic control
    Ans: d.

    Q21. Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is:
    a- Pectoralis major
    b- Teres minor
    c- Semimembranosus
    d- Gastrocnemius
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Paravertebral black, can extend into all except:
    a- Sub-arachnoids space
    b- Epidural space
    c- Sup and inferior paravertebral space
    d- Inter costal space
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Sodium Bicarbonate given as an adjunct to local anesthetics because:
    a- ↑ onset faction and ↑ duration
    b- ↓ onset faction and ↑ duration
    c- ↓ onset faction and ↓ duration
    d- ↑ onset faction and ↓ duration
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Signs of successful Stellate ganglion block all except:
    a- Miosis
    b- Guttmann sign
    c- Bradycardia
    d- Unilateral nasal stuffiness
    Ans: c.


    Q1. After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes; segments are joined by:
    a- Endonuclease-
    b- Ligase
    c- Topoisomerase
    d- Helicase
    Ans: b.

    Q2. Intestinal flora digests all except:
    a- Cellulose
    b- Lignin
    c- Pectin
    d- Starch
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except:
    a- Fatty acid
    b- Glucose
    c- Ketone bodies
    d- Cholesterol
    Ans: b.

    Q4. Splicing is associated with:
    a- mRNA
    b- Sn RNA
    c- r RNA
    d- t RNA
    Ans: b.

    Q5. LPL incorrect is:
    a- Is found in adipose tissue
    b- Is found in myocytes
    c- Def leads to hyper TG
    d- Does not require C-II as cofactor
    Ans: d.

    Q6. A male child presents with delayed development and biting of the lips and hands. His parent have restrained him because he obsessively chews on his lips and fingers which of the following is likely to occur in this child?
    a- HGPRTase def
    b- Adenosine deaminase def
    c- Phenylalanine hydroxylase def
    d- Sphingomyelinase def
    e- None
    Ans: a.

    Q7. CAP in Lac Operon is an example of:
    a- Positive regulator
    b- Negative regulator
    c- Constitutive expression
    d- Attenuation
    Ans: a.

    Q8. Oxidation reduction reaction occurs with all except:
    a- Hydroperoxidases
    b- Peroxidases
    c- Oxygenases
    d- Dehydrogenases
    Ans: a.

    Q9. MICRO RNA function:
    a- Gene regulation
    b- DNA conformation
    c- RNA splicing
    d- Translation
    Ans: a.

    Q10. Best marker for stratification of Cardiovascular disease risk:
    a- Homocystine
    b- Lipoprotein (a)
    c- Anti-chlamydial antibody
    d- CRP
    Ans: b.

    Q11. Least polar among following groups:
    a- Methyl
    b- Amino
    c- Carboxyl
    d- Phosphate
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Following SDS-PAGE electrophoresis, protein with is found to be 100 KD. After Rx with mercaptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 KD and 30KD widely separated. True statement:
    a- Protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage
    b- It’s dimer of 2 subunits of 20 and 30 KD
    c- It’s a tetramer of 2 20 KD and 2 30 KD
    d- Protein breakdown due to non-covalent linkage
    Ans: a.

    Q13. Basic defect in HbS is:
    a- Altered function
    b- Altered solubility
    c- Altered stability
    d- Altered O2 binding capacity
    Ans: b.

    Q14. Characteristic of HbS is all except:
    a- Change of glutamine to Valine
    b- Heterozygotes are protected against malaria
    c- Increase in sticky patch due to substitution of nonpolar residue
    d- Single base substitution lead to RFLP
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Diastolic pressure in aorta is maintained by:
    a- Elastic recoil of aorta
    b- Muscular artery
    c- Resistance in arterioles
    d- Capillaries
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to:
    a- Increase in CO2 tension
    b- Decrease in CO2 tension
    c- Low CO2 tension
    d- Increase in H+
    Ans: a.

    Q3. True for vasomotor center is:
    a- Not influenced by cortical centers
    b- Stimulated by baroreceptors from arterial organs
    c- In sleep medulla stops sending signals which explains decrease in BP
    d- Functional interaction with cardio-vagal center
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Interior factor of castle is present in:
    a- Chief cells
    b- Fundus cells
    c- Goblet cells
    d- Parietal cells
    Ans: d.

    Q5. Facilitated diffusion:
    a- Requires carrier protein
    b- Is a form of active transport
    c- Along concentration gradient
    d- Requires creatinine phosphate
    Ans: a.

    Q6. Action potential generated in axon hillock is due to:
    a- It has least threshold
    b- Neurotransmitters produced
    c- Unmyelinated
    d- Has more ion channels
    Ans: d.

    Q7. Cell-cell interaction occurs by all of the following mechanism except:
    a- Hormones
    b- Gap junctions
    c- G-protein receptors
    d- Neurotransmitters released at synapse
    Ans: c.

    Q8. In obstructive azoospermia:
    a- FSH and LH both increase
    b- FSH and LH both normal
    c- FSH decrease but LH increases
    d- FSH and LH both decrease
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Which is not involved in intrinsic pathway?
    a- Factor XII
    b- Factor XI
    c- Factor IX
    d- Factor VII
    Ans: d.

    Q10. Cause of sigmoid shape of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (O2) is:
    a- Binding of one O2 molecule increase the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules
    b- Binding of one O2 molecule decrease the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules
    c- Bohr effect
    d- Haldane effect
    Ans: a.

    Q11. Sertoli cells are associated with:
    a- Spermiogenesis
    b- Secretion of seminal fluid
    c- Production of testosterones
    d- Production of sperm
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Sleep is primarily regulated by:
    a- Thalamus
    b- Hypothalamus
    c- Putamen
    d- Limbic cortex
    Ans: b.

    Q13. Paneth cells are rich in:
    a- Zinc
    b- Lysozyme
    c- Mucus
    d- Intrinsic factor
    Ans: Both a and b.

    Q14. Muscle’s blood supply increases during exercise due to:
    a- Increased blood pressure
    b- Accumulation of active metabolites
    c- Increase vasodilatation
    d- Increase heart rate
    Ans: b.

    Q15. The status of fluid in distal convoluted tubule is all except:
    a- Always hypotonic
    b- Hypertonic
    c- Isotonic
    d- Always hypertonic
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Energy expenditure in resting state depends upon:
    a- Lean body mass
    b- Adipose tissue
    c- Heart rate
    d- None of the above
    Ans: a.

    Q17. Rise in 2-3 bisphosphoglycerate is seen in all of the following except:
    a- Chronic anemia
    b- Chronic hypoxia
    c- Inosine
    d- Hypoxanthine
    Ans: d.

    Q18. A person sits from standing position, change seen is:
    a- Immediate increase in venous return
    b- Increase in heart rate
    c- Increase epinephrine
    d- Increase cerebral blood flow
    Ans: a.

    Q19. Angiotensin II causes all except:
    a- Stimulates release of ADH
    b- Increases thirst
    c- Vasodilation
    d- Stimulates aldosterone release
    Ans: c.

    Q20. About renal physiology all are true except:
    a- DCT always receive hypo-osmotic solution
    b- Afferent artery supplies glomerulus
    c- GFR is controlled by afferent and efferent arteriole
    d- 5% cardiac output is received by kidney
    Ans: d.

    Q21. After 48 hours of fasting insulin receptors are down regulated in:
    a- Brain
    b- Liver
    c- RBC
    d- Adipocytes
    Ans: d.

    Q22. True about deglutition peristalsis of esophagus:
    a- Primary
    b- Secondary
    c- Tertiary
    d- Quaternary
    Ans: A.

    Q23. Oxygen demand of heart:
    a- Increases proportionately with heart rate
    b- Depends upon duration of systole
    c- Is negligible when heart is at rest
    d- Is in constant relation with amount of work done
    Ans: a.

    Q24. Cyanosis doesn’t occur in anemia because:
    a- Certain min. amount of reduced Hb should be present
    b- In anemia, O2 saturation increases
    c- Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production
    d- O2 hemoglobin curve shifts to right
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Finnish type of nephritic syndrome is associated with:
    a- Nephrin
    b- Podocin
    c- Alpha actinin
    d- CD2 activated protein
    Ans: a.

    Q2. A 7-year old girl presents with bleeding in joints. She has prolonged aPTT, normal PT an platelet counts. What could be the deficiency?
    a- IX
    b- VIII
    c- VII
    d- Von Willebrand
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Which of the following is not true about Neuroblastoma?
    a- Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood
    b- >50% present with metastasis at time of diagnosis
    c- Lung metastases are common
    d- Involve aorta and its branches early
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Function of CD4, is all except:
    a- Memory
    b- Immunoglobin production
    c- Activation of macrophages
    d- Cytotoxicity
    Ans: b.

    Q5. What is specific for GIST?
    a- CD 117
    b- CD34
    c- CD23
    d- S-100
    Ans: a.

    Q6. True for hemochromatosis:
    a- Complete penetrance
    b- Autosomal recessive
    c- Phlebotomy leads to cure
    d- More common in females
    Ans: b.

    Q7. When one gene is inherited from one parent only, it is known as:
    a- Genomic imprinting
    b- Mosaicism
    c- Alleles
    d- Chimerism
    Ans: a.

    Q8. Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis is associated with:
    a- Microscopic polyangitis
    b- SLE
    c- H S Purpura
    Ans: a.

    Q9. What is affected in HbS (Hemoglobin S)?
    a- Stability
    b- Function
    c- Affinity
    d- Solubility
    Ans: d.

    Q10. A 56-year-old male presents with sudden substernal pain, impending doom, died days after. On autopsy, there was a large transmural anterior wall infarction. It would be associated with:
    a- Presence of collagen and fibroblasts
    b- Presence of neutrophils
    c- Granulomatous inflammation
    d- Granulation tissue
    Ans: d.

    Q11. Characteristic of acute inflammation:
    a- Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
    b- Vasoconstruction
    c- Platelet aggregation
    d- Infiltration by neutrophil
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Coagulative necrosis is found in which infection?
    a- TB
    b- Sarcoidosis
    c- Gangrene
    d- Fungal infection
    Ans: a.

    Q13. Psammoma bodies are seen in all except:
    a- Follicular carcinoma thyroid
    b- Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    c- Serous cystadenoma
    d- Meningioma
    Ans: a.

    Q14. Stain of mineralization of newly formed osteoid:
    a- von Kossa stain
    b- Alizarin red
    c- Labeled tetracycline
    d- Fluorescence
    Ans: c.

    Q15. Colon Ca is associated with all except:
    a- Rb
    b- Mismatch repair genes
    c- APC
    d- Beta detenin
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Hallmark features of benign HTN is:
    a- Hyaline arteriosclerosis
    b- Cystic medial necrosis
    c- Fibrinoid necrosis
    d- Hyperplastic art
    Ans: a.

    Q17. Organelle which plays a pivotal role in apoptosis:
    a- Cytoplasm
    b- Golgi complex
    c- Mitochondria
    d- Nucleus
    Ans: c.

    Q18. Most bactericidal agent is:
    a- Cationic basic protein
    b- Lactoferrin
    c- Lysozyme
    d- Reactive O2 species
    Ans: d.

    Q19. Hypersensitive pneumonitis is classically a:
    a- Allergic reaction
    b- Type II hypersensitivity
    c- Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
    d- Cell mediated hypersensitivity
    Ans: c.

    Q20. Karyotyping is done for:
    a- Chromosomal disorders
    b- AR disorders
    c- AD disorders
    d- Link disorders
    Ans: a.

    Q21. Aging is due to:
    a- Accumulated mutations in somatic cells
    b- Accumulation of free radicals
    c- Decreased cross linking of collagen
    d- Decreased antioxidant
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Ifosfamide is:
    a- Alkylating agents
    b- Antimetabolite
    c- Folate antagonists
    d- Plant alkaloids
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Nitroglycerin causes all except:
    a- Hypotension and bradycardia
    b- Methemoglobinemia
    c- Hypotension and tachycardia
    d- Vasodilation
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct?
    a- Major depression and associated lethargy
    b- Narcolepsy
    c- Obstructive sleep apnea
    d- Shift work disorder
    Ans: b.

    Q4. Which cephalosporins can be used in ↓ GFR?
    a- Cefuroxine
    b- Ceftriaxone
    c- Ceftazidime
    d- Cefoperazone
    Ans: d.

    Q5. Use of tamoxifen in HRT does not lead to ↑ in:
    a- Thromboembolic episodes
    b- Heart disease
    c- Ca in contralateral breast
    d- Endometrial hyperplasia
    Ans: c.

    Q6. Folate deficiency is associated with all except:
    a- Phenytoin
    b- Alcohol
    c- Sulfasalazine
    d- Chloroquine
    Ans: d.

    Q7. A patient is given tacrolimus, which antibiotic should not be given to him?
    a- Gentamicin
    b- Cisplatin
    c- Rifampicin
    d- Vancomycin
    Ans: c.

    Q8. Drug not given in acute angle glaucoma:
    a- Pilocarpine
    b- Clozapine
    c- Fluphenazine
    d- Duloxetine
    Ans: c.

    Q9. All are the side effects of tacrolimus except:
    a- Hepatoxic
    b- Nephrotoxic
    c- Ototoxic
    d- Neurotoxic
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Which of the following is cell cycle specific?
    a- Ifosfamide
    b- Bleomycin
    c- Vinblastine
    d- Cyclophosphamide
    Ans: c.

    Q11. Bleomycin toxicity affects which type of cells:
    a- Type-I pneumocyte
    b- Type-II pneumocyte
    c- Endothelial cell
    d- Alveolar macrophages
    Ans: b.

    Q12. DOC in severe complicated falciparum malaria:
    a- Chloroquine
    b- Quinine
    c- Artesunate
    d- Artemether
    Ans: b.

    Q13. In treatment of osteosarcoma, all of the following are used except:
    a- High dose methotrexate
    b- Cyclophosphamide
    c- Vincristine
    d- Bleomycin etoposides, doxorubicin
    Ans: c.

    Q14. ‘Hand Foot’ syndrome can be caused by :
    a- Cisplatin
    b- Vincristine
    c- Capecitabine
    d- Mitomycin-C
    Ans: a.

    Q15. All are true about estrogen except:
    a- Decreases HDL
    b- Increases triglycerides
    c- Increases turnover of LDL receptors
    d- Increases apolipoprotein
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Valproate causes all except:
    a- Weight gain
    b- Alopecia
    c- Liver damage
    d- Osteomalacia
    Ans: d.

    Q17. Topical mitomycin-C is used in:
    a- Sturge-Weber syndrome
    b- Laryngotracheal stenosis
    c- Endoscopic angiofibroma
    d- Skull base osteomyelitis
    Ans: c.

    Q18. Amifostine is protective to all except:
    a- Salivary gland
    b- Skin
    c- CNS
    d- GIT
    Ans: c.

    Q19. Appetite suppressors are all except:
    a- Melanocyte stimulating hormone
    b- Melanocyte corticotropic releasing hormone
    c- Neuropeptide Y
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Regarding angioneurotic edema, what is not true?
    a- Edema is pitting in cheeks and lips
    b- Due to deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor
    c- Can be induced by sunlight or stress
    d- Can be caused by ACE inhibitor
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Receptor of HIV:
    a- CD4
    b- CD8
    c- Plasma cell
    d- CD56
    Ans: a.

    Q3. True for Chlamydia trachomatis:
    a- Always symptomatic
    b- Can be diagnosed by cervical smear culture
    c- Susceptible to penicillin
    d- Most common pathogen in OC pills user
    Ans: c.

    Q4. True for necrotizing fasciitis are all except:
    a- Infection of fascia and subcutaneous tissue
    b- Caused by group a beta hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes
    c- Most common in trunk, lower limbs and perineum
    d- Surgical debridement is usually not needed
    Ans: d.

    Q5. E.coli 0157 is cultured not on:
    a- XLD
    b- Mannitol sucrose agar
    c- Hoenke media
    d- Sorbitol MacConkey agar
    Ans: d.

    Q6. Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs in:
    a- Re-infection with same virus
    b- Re-infection from other virus
    c- Infection with wild virus
    d- Infection with type I virus
    Ans: b.

    Q7. Tickborne relapsing fever is caused by all except:
    a- B. recurrentis
    b- B. hermsii
    c- B. turicatase
    d- B. duttonii
    Ans: a.

    Q8. What is not true about nontyphoidal Salmonella?
    a- Can be transmitted due to eating of poultry
    b- Causes severe infection in neonates
    c- Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture
    d- Quinolones are most effective Rx
    Ans: c.

    Q9. Non-invasive diarrhea caused by all except:
    a- Shigella
    b- EIEC
    c- B. cereus
    d- Y. enterocolitica
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Enterovirus caused all except:
    a- Aseptic meningitis
    b- Pleurodynia
    c- Herpangina
    d- Hemorrhagic fever
    Ans: d.

    Q11. Pasturella multocida infection is due to:
    a- Soil
    b- Aerosol
    c- Animal bite
    d- Contaminated tissue
    Ans: c.

    Q12. Regarding Parvovirus B-19, false statement is:
    a- Can cross placenta in <10% cases
    b- DNA virus
    c- Can cause anemia
    d- None
    Ans: a.

    Q13. True about leptospirosis is all except:
    a- Transmitted by rodent urine
    b- Penicillin IV is treatment in severe cases
    c- 5 to 15% mortality in severe cases
    d- Antibody can be detected in a week
    Ans: d.

    Q14. Lambda phase all except:
    a- In lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormant
    b- In lytic phase it fuses with host chromosomes and remains dormant
    c- In lysogenic phase it causes cell lysis
    d- Both phases are not together
    Ans: d.

    Q15. Maltese cross is associated with:
    a- Candida albicans
    b- Penicillin marneffei
    c- Babesia microti
    d- Cryptococcus
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Casper’s dictum is for:
    a- Identification of body
    b- Time since death
    c- Mode of injury
    d- Depth of insertion of knife
    Ans: b.

    Q2. All are traumatic asphyxia except:
    a- Railway accident
    b- Road traffic accident
    c- Accidental strangulation
    d- Stampede
    Ans: c.

    Q3. Disease, which permanently alters finger print:
    a- Burns
    b- TB
    c- Psoriasis
    d- Leprosy
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the cause?
    a- Primary impact injury
    b- Secondary impact injury
    c- Secondary injury
    d- Postmortem artefact
    Ans: b.

    Q5. Stellate wound is seen in:
    a- Contact wound
    b- From close range
    c- W/I 2 meters range
    d- Long range
    Ans: d.

    Q6. Abrasion marks resemble:
    a- Eczema
    b- Ant-bite marks
    c- Artefact
    d- Excoriations by excreta
    Ans: b.

    Q7. Motorcyclist fracture is:
    a- Ring fracture
    b- Comminuted fracture
    c- Skull divided into two halves
    d- Subdural hemorrhage
    Ans: c.

    Q8. Heat hematoma differs from blunt trauma by:
    a- Margins are smooth
    b- Margins are irregular
    c- Blood vessels cut
    d- Blood vessel intact
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Privileged conversation is between:
    a- Patient and doctor
    b- Doctor and law
    c- Doctor and relative
    d- Doctor and notifying authority
    Ans: d.

    Q10. Organ MC involved in blast injuries:
    a- Lung
    b- Liver
    c- Intestine
    d- Brain
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Incidence rate can be calculated by:
    a- Case control study
    b- Cohort study
    c- Cross sectional study
    d- Longitudinal study
    Ans: b.

    Q2. In a program the end pint of all activities which may not be operationally measurable is called?
    a- Objective
    b- Target
    c- Mission
    d- Goal
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Continuous variable of ground data, the frequency is represented by:
    a- Histogram
    b- Line diagram
    c- Pictogram
    d- Bar diagram
    Ans: a.

    Q4. Late expanding stage in demography is:
    a- BR in low DR v. low
    b- BR static DR ↓
    c- BR less than DR
    d- BR high Dr high
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Regarding purification of water all are true except:
    a- Multiple tube method is used for sampling
    b- E. coli can be tested by Indole test
    c- Clostridial infection indicates recent infection
    d- Level of residual chlorine should be 0.5 mg/L
    Ans: c.

    Q6. In simple random sampling:
    a- All have equal chance of getting selected
    b- Selection is dependent on individuals characteristic
    c- Only possible when complete sampling frame is not available
    d- Suitable for large heterogeneous population
    Ans: a.

    Q7. Regarding crude birth rate all are true except:
    a- Unaffected by Age-distribution
    b- Indicator of fertility
    c- Excludes the stillbirths
    d- Is a better measure of fertility than the general fertility rate
    Ans: d.

    Q8. Cut off of Indian reference man (kg):
    a- 60
    b- 70
    c- 50
    d- 55
    Ans: a.

    Q9. All of the following are correct about disinfections except:
    a- Glutaraldehyde-virus killing
    b- Ethylene oxide is 3rd generation disinfecting agent
    c- Phenols are ineffective against organic matter
    d- Autoclaving is not suitable for sterilization of plastics and sharp instruments
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Most recent classification according to WHO for disability:
    a- International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health’s
    b- DALY
    c- WHO DAIS
    d- STEPS
    Ans: a.

    Q11. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls, out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys that were admitted 20 needed surgeries. What is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery?
    a- 3/5
    b- 2/6
    c- 5/6
    d- ½
    Ans: b.

    Q12. True statements about RDA:
    a- Average daily requirements of all nutrients
    b- Average daily requirements of all nutrients except calories +_ 2SD
    c- Indicates adequacy of dietary intake
    d- Applies to even sick people
    Ans: b.

    Q13. STEPS refers to:
    a- Assessing incidence of risk factors of non-communicable diseases
    b- Assessing incidence of non-communicable diseases
    c- Assessing Rx compliance of non-communicable diseases
    d- Assessing rate of mortality of non-communicable diseases
    Ans: a.

    Q14. Chemoprophylaxis can be done for the following except:
    a- Meningitis meningococcal
    b- Typhoid
    c- Cholera
    d- Plague
    Ans: b.

    Q15. Q fever is transmitted by:
    a- Ticks
    b- Mites
    c- Louse
    d- Aerosol
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Toxin shock syndrome is caused by:
    a- Infected DPT administration
    b- IV DPT
    c- Infected measles vaccine
    d- Infected BCG vaccine
    Ans: c.

    Q17. False about Aedes aegypti is:
    a- Eggs can survive without water for > 7-8 days
    b- Transmits dengue
    c- Bites repeatedly
    d- Incubation period in mosquito is 8-10 days
    Ans: a.

    Q18. Which of the following is not part of targeted intervention in preventive strategy in spread of AIDS?
    a- Providing ART
    b- Treating STD
    c- Providing Condoms
    d- Behavior change communication
    Ans: a.

    Q19. Association of chronic disease is all except:
    a- Dose response relationship
    b- Temporal association
    c- Biological plausibility
    d- Consistency
    Ans: NONE

    Q20. In a standard distribution curve:
    a- Mean = 2 median
    b- Median = Variance
    c- Mean = Median
    d- Standard deviation = 2 variance
    Ans: c.

    Q21. Vitamin A prophylaxis program is an example of:
    a- Primordial prevention
    b- Health promotion
    c- Specific protection
    d- Disability limitation
    Ans: c.

    Q22. In HIV maximum risk of transmission is by:
    a- Homosexual
    b- Blood transfusion
    c- Heterosexual
    d- Needle pride
    Ans: b.

    Q23. Analytical studies A/E:
    a- Case control
    b- Ecological
    c- Cohort
    d- Field trials
    Ans: d.

    Q24. Baby friendly hospital initiative all except:
    a- Breast feeding on demand
    b- Initiate breastfeeding within 4 hours of (N) delivery
    c- Allow mothers and infants to remain together 24 hr/day
    d- Training of health care staff
    Ans: b.

    Q25. The modes of infection of the following diseases are all except:
    a- Leptospirosis – rat urine
    b- Tetanus – dust droplets
    c- Listeria – refrigerated food
    d- Legionella – aerosol
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Trotters triad include
    a- Deafness
    b- Mandibular neuralgia
    c- Palatal palsy
    d- Seizures
    Ans: d.

    Q2. A 38 years old man had labyrinthine fistula with positive fistula sign. Two weeks later fistula sign became negative without any treatment. Which of the following will be the Rinne’s test (tuning fork) finding:
    a- True-positive Rinne’s test
    b- False-positive Rinne’s test
    c- True-negative Rinne’s test
    d- False-negative Rinne’s test
    Ans: d.

    Q3. A young man met with an accident leading to loss of hearing in the right ear. On otoscopy examination the tympanic membrane was intact. Pure tone audiometry showed AB gap of 55 dB on the right ear with normal cochlear reserve. Which of the following will be probable tympanometry finding?
    a- As type tympanogram
    b- Ad type tympanogram
    c- B type tympanogram
    d- C type tympanogram
    Ans: b.

    Q4. A 45 years old lady presented with a swelling in the parotid gland for the past 6 months. FNAC done from this area revealed lympho-epithelioma. All are true of lymphoepithelioma except:
    a- Parotid gland is the most common site of lymphoepithelioma in the head and neck region
    b- It is known to be caused by EBV
    c- The epithelial cells are mainly malignant with lymphoid tissue
    d- It is a highly radio sensitive tumor
    Ans: A.

    Q5. Meningitis spreads from CNS to Inner ear through:
    a- Cochlear aqueduct
    b- Endolymphatic sac
    c- Vestibular aqueduct
    d- Hyrtl fissure
    Ans: a.

    Q6. Laryngeal pseudosulcus true is:
    a- Due to vocal abuse
    b- Due to reflux induced laryngitis (pharyngoesophageal reflux)
    c- Seen in TB
    d- Due to high dose corticosteroids
    Ans: b.

    Q7. True about Recurrent Laryngeal Papillomatosis (RLP):
    a- Caused by Parvo virus
    b- HPV 16 and HPV 18 are most commonly implicated
    c- HPV 6 is most virulent
    d- Transmission to the neonate occurs secondary to direct contact with mother
    Ans: d.


    Q1. All are used in the treatment of diabetic retinopathy except:
    a- Removal of epiretinal membrane
    b- Vitrectomy
    c- Retinal reattachment
    d- Exo photocoagulation
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Which of the following is best to differentiate CRVO from carotid artery occlusion?
    a- Dilated retinal vein
    b- Retinal artery pressure
    c- Tortuous retinal vein
    d- Ophthalmodynamometry
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Raised LHD levels in Aqueous is seen in:
    a- Galactosemia
    b- Glaucoma
    c- Hemangioblastoma
    d- Retinoblastoma
    Ans: d.

    Q4. ICG angiography is primarily indicated in:
    a- Minimal classical CNV
    b- Occult CNV
    c- Angioid streaks with CNV
    d- POlypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
    Ans: b.

    Q5. In fetus Angio genesis in eye involved all except:
    a- TNF beta
    b- IL-8
    c- BFGF
    d- VEGF
    Ans: b.

    Q6. True about Uveal effusion syndrome is all except:
    a- Due to defect in sclera
    b- Choroido-retinal detachment
    c- Scleritis
    d- Myopia
    Ans: d.

    Q7. True about Juxta foveal Telangiectasia is all except:
    a- Variant of Coat’s disease
    b- Macular telangiectasia
    c- Peripheral telangiectasia
    d- Structural abnormality seen in vessels
    Ans: c.

    Q8. All are true about Lambert Eaton syndrome except:
    a- Spares ocular muscle
    b- Tensilon test positive
    c- Proximal muscle involvement
    d- Repeat nerve stimulation improve muscle strength
    Ans: a.

    Q9. All are true about visual cycle except:
    a- Condensation of opsin with aldehyde of retinal
    b- NADP is reduced
    c- NAD is reduced
    d- Opsin combines with retinal to form visual purple
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by the following except:
    a- Diabetes mellitus
    b- Acromegaly
    c- Addison’s disease
    d- Hypothyroidism
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Hirsutism is caused by all except:
    a- Cushing syndrome
    b- Acromegaly
    c- Hyperthyroidism
    d- Hyperprolactinemia
    Ans: c.

    Q3. Systolic thrill in 2nd and 3rd IC space. Causes all except:
    a- Pink TOF
    b- Sub-pulm VSD
    c- Pulm stenosis
    d- Ebstein anomaly
    Ans: b.

    Q4. All of the following can be associated with PNH except:
    a- Cerebral thrombosis
    b- Budd Chiari
    c- Pancytopenia
    d- Massive splenomegaly
    Ans: d.

    Q5. Aldosterone leads to all except:
    a- Hypernatremia
    b- Hypokalemia
    c- HTN
    d- Metabolic acidosis
    Ans: d.

    Q6. Hypercalcemia is associated with:
    a- Hyperparathyroidism
    b- Sarcoidosis
    c- Milk alkali syndrome
    d- Celiac disease
    Ans: d.

    Q7. All lead to hyper coagulability except:
    a- Burns
    b- Hemorrhage
    c- Infections
    d- Surgery of 1 hour duration
    Ans: d.

    Q8. Coombs positive hemolytic anemia associated with:
    a- TTP
    b- PAN
    c- SLE
    d- HUS
    Ans: c.

    Q9. True about temporal arteritis all except:
    a- More common in females
    b- Worsens on exposure to heat
    c- Seen in elderly women
    d- Can lead to sudden bilateral blindness
    Ans: b.

    Q10. Hepatomegaly with liver pulsations indicates:
    a- TR
    b- MR
    c- Pulmonary hypertension
    d- MS
    Ans: a.

    Q11. C wave in JVP indicates:
    a- Atrial contraction
    b- Bulging of tricuspid valve
    c- Ventricle systole
    d- Rapid ventricle filling
    Ans: b.

    Q12. False-positive rheumatoid factor can be associated with all except:
    a- Inflammatory bowel disease
    b- HbsAg
    c- VDRL
    d- Coombs test
    Ans: a.

    Q13. Patients with foreign body sensation in eye and swollen knee it after leisure trip:
    a- Sarcoidosis
    b- Reiter’s disease
    c- Behcet’s disease
    d- SLE
    Ans: b.

    Q14. About Hepatitis C, which is true?
    a- DNA virus
    b- MC indication for liver transplant
    c- Does not cause liver cancer
    d- Does not cause coinfection with HBV
    Ans: b.

    Q15. A 23 years old symptomatic female pilot has MCV-70, ferritin – 100 g/L, Hb – 10 gm%, what is the cause?
    a- Thalassemia trait
    b- B12 def
    c- Folate def
    d- Iron def
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
    a- Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
    b- Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis
    c- Increased calcium ingestion causes iron deficiency
    d- Vitamin A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vitamin A diet
    Ans: b.

    Q17. Immediately after eating a man developed lump in throat, prutitis, dyspnea, cyanosis and not being able to breath after few hours. Most probable cause is;
    a- Angioneurotic edema
    b- Hypersensitivity reaction
    c- MI
    d- Food stuck in larynx
    Ans: b.

    Q18. A girl-aged 8 years has been admitted for dialysis. She has serum K of 7.5 mEq/l, which is the fastest way to reduce the hyperkealmia?
    a- Kayexalate enema
    b- Infusion of insulin + glucose
    c- IV calcium gluconate
    d- IV NaHCO3
    Ans: b.

    Q19. Restless leg syndrome (RLS) is seen in:
    a- Hypercalcemia
    b- Hyperphosphatemia
    c- Chronic renal failure
    d- Hyperkalemia
    Ans: C.

    Q20. Positive hepatojugular reflux is found in conditions except:
    a- Tricuspid regurgitation
    b- Right heart failure
    c- Decreased after lead
    d- PS
    Ans: c.

    Q21. Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:
    a- Autosomal recessive
    b- Cutaneous fibromas
    c- Cataract
    d- Scoliosis
    Ans: a.

    Q22. A 55 years old lady posted for hip replacement surgery. All of the following are known causes of DVT except:
    a- PNH
    b- OCP
    c- Infections
    d- Surgery for 1 hrs
    Ans: c.

    Q23. SIRS includes all except:
    a- Leukocytosis
    b- Thrombocytopenia
    c- Hypothermia
    d- Oral temperature more than 38°C
    Ans: b.

    Q24. Treatment for leukemia in a child with hyperleukocytosis is all except:
    a- IV fluids
    b- Allopurinol
    c- Alkalinizations of urine
    d- Immediately start chemotherapy
    Ans: d.

    Q25. Which of the following is not true about JRA?
    a- Fever
    b- Rheumatoid nodules
    c- Uveitis
    d- Raynaud’s phenomenon
    Ans: d.

    Q26. Positive urinary anion gap is found in:
    a- RTA
    b- Glue poisoning
    c- Diabetic ketoacidosis
    d- Diarrhea
    Ans: a.

    Q27. Triad of tuberous sclerosis except:
    a- Epilepsy
    b- Adenoma sebaceum
    c- Low intelligence
    d- Hydrocephalus
    Ans: d.

    Q28. Test for assessment of mucosal function of GIT:
    a- D-Xylose test
    b- Small bowel study
    c- Biopsy
    d- Schilling test
    Ans: a.

    Q29. The following are the complications of the HIV infection except:
    a- Cardiac tamponade
    b- Pericardial effusion
    c- Aortic aneurysm
    d- Cardiomyopathy
    Ans: c.

    Q30. A young man with gout has synovial fluid removed. It would shows:
    a- MSU crystals
    b- CPPD crystals
    c- PMN cells
    d- Mono nuclear cells
    Ans: a.

    Q31. In a lady with bilateral superior temporal quadrantopia, galactorrhea, the most probable cause is:
    a- Pituitary macroadenoma
    b- Craniopharyngioma
    c- Sheehan’s syndrome
    d- Pituitary hypophysitis
    Ans: a.

    Q32. Hepatomegaly is caused by all except:
    a- Glycogen storage disease
    b- Niemann pick
    c- Hepatic porphyria
    d- Hurlers disease
    Ans: c.

    Q33. Not seen in idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis:
    a- Eosinopenia
    b- Iron deficiency anemia
    c- Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
    d- Hemoptysis
    Ans: a.

    Q34. A 29 years old person know diabetic on OHA since 3 years. He has lost weight. Never had DKA. His grand father is diabetic. His father is nondiabetic. Which is the likely diagnosis?
    a- MODY
    b- DM type I
    c- DM type II
    d- Pancreatic diabetes
    Ans: c.

    Q35. About VHL which is not true:
    a- Retinal and cerebellar hemangioblastoma
    b- Gastric carcinoma
    c- Pheochromocytoma
    d- RCC
    Ans: b.

    Q36. Spastic paraplegia is caused by all except:
    a- Vit B12 deficiency
    b- Cervical spondylosis
    c- Lead poisoning
    d- Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
    Ans: c.

    Q37. If a person with severe hyperglycemia is given IV insulin, which of the following can occurs?
    a- Hypokalemia
    b- Hyperkalemia
    c- Hyponatremia
    d- Hypernatremia
    Ans: a.

    Q38. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC are all of the following except:
    a- Polycythemia
    b- Hypercalcemia
    c- Malignant hypertension
    d- Cushing syndrome
    Ans: d.

    Q39. Which of the following won’t present in right heart failure?
    a- Increased PCWP
    b- Pulsatile liver
    c- Increased liver
    d- Positive hepatojugular reflux
    Ans: a.

    Q40. Cystic fibrosis all are true except:
    a- Defect in calcium channel
    b- Pseudomonas infection seen
    c- AR
    d- Cirrhosis of liver can occur
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Which of the following is protective against carcinoma colon?
    a- High fiber diet
    b- High fat
    c- High selenium diet
    d- Low protein diet
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Which is high-risk for laparoscopic surgery?
    a- Hiatus hernia
    b- Obesity
    c- Heart disease
    d- Hb < 8 gm%
    Ans: b.

    Q3. On USG of thyroid which is not sign of malignancy?
    a- Hypoechogenicity
    b- Hyperechogenicity
    c- Microcalcification
    d- Colloids
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Patient with pancreatic transplant with urinary drainage. Monitoring will be done by:
    a- Blood amylase
    b- Urine amylase
    c- Serum glucose levels
    d- Serum lipase level
    Ans: b.

    Q5. SEPS is done for:
    a- Arteries
    b- Veins
    c- Lymphatics
    d- A-V fistula
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Thoracic outlet syndrome is diagnosed by:
    a- Clinical examination
    b- X-ray
    c- Electromyography
    d- CT scan
    Ans: a.

    Q7. MC cause of superficial thrombophlebitis:
    a- IV injections
    b- DVT
    c- HT
    d- Trauma
    Ans: a.

    Q8. Gold standard to diagnosis insulinoma is:
    a- 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels and insulin levels
    b- C-peptide < 50
    c- Insulin levels > 5 mmol
    d- Glucose < 3 mmol
    Ans: a.

    Q9. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ruptures most commonly:
    a- Ant
    b- Post
    c- Lat
    d- Non
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Pt. presents with punched out lesion on X-ray with Serum Na-144, K+-4.5, Ca-12, Globulin – 8.4, alls 5.4, what will be next investigation to do?
    a- Serum protein electrophoretic studies
    b- Alk PO4- levels
    c- Bone scan
    d- ESR
    Ans: a.

    Q11. Best material for below inguinal arterial graft:
    a- Saphenous upside down
    b- PTFE
    c- Dacron carmustine
    d- Teflon
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Most associated with moderate risk for breast carcinoma:
    a- Atypical adenosis
    b- Metaplasia
    c- Atypical hypertrophy
    d- Atypical hyperplasia
    Ans: d.

    Q13. A 50-year-old male has thyroid nodule. FNAC is suggestive of papillary carcinoma. Best treatment is:
    a- Hemithyroidectomy
    b- Subtotal thyroidectomy with MR neck dissection
    c- Total thyroidectomy MR neck dissection
    d- Hemithyroidectomy with MR neck dissection
    Ans: a.

    Q14. Most important prognostic factor of colorectal carcinoma:
    a- Site of lesion
    b- Stage of lesion
    c- Age of patient
    d- LN status
    Ans: b.

    Q15. What is intermittent claudication?
    a- Pain on 1st sleep
    b- Pain on exercise only
    c- Pain on last step
    d- Pain on rest
    Ans: b.

    Q16. A gallbladder with a polyp, what is not a risk factor for development of carcinomas:
    a- Presence of gallstones
    b- Age > 60 years
    c- Polyp > 5 mm in length
    d- Sudden ↑ in the size of polyp
    Ans: c.

    Q17. The patient has chronic arterial obstruction. He presents with:
    a- Gangrene and claudication
    b- Intermittent claudication
    c- Rest pains
    d- Gangrene
    Ans: b.

    Q18. Zenker’s diverticulum is:
    a- Barium swallow in lateral position is best investigation
    b- Outpouching in the anterior pharyngeal sphincter
    c- True diverticula
    d- Out pouching above cricopharyngeal sphincter
    Ans: d.

    Q19. Stress incontinence is best treated by:
    a- Bladder training
    b- Pelvic exercises
    c- Drugs
    d- Surgery
    Ans: d.

    Q20. A man with blunt injury abdomen after road side accident has BP of 100/80 mm Hg, pulse 120 bpm. Respiration stabilized through airway. Next best step in the management is:
    a- Immediate blood transfusion
    b- Blood for cross-matching + IV fluids
    c- Ventilate the patient
    d- Rush to the OT
    Ans: b.

    Q21. Chemoradiotherapy is not given in:
    a- II Ca cervix
    b- Anal carcinoma T2 N1 M0
    c- T2 N0 M0 glottic Ca
    d- Nasopharyngeal Ca
    Ans: c.

    Q22. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection is:
    a- Uric acid
    b- Triple phosphate
    c- Calcium oxalate
    d- Xanthine
    Ans: b.

    Q23. Entrapment neuropathies commonly affect the following nerves except:
    a- Tibial
    b- Femoral
    c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    d- Median N
    Ans: b.

    Q24. Regarding pancreatic cancer, all are true except:
    a- More than 75% have p53 mutation
    b- More common in people with familial pancreatitis
    c- 3-6 m survival in stage 3
    d- 15-20% survival on 5 years
    Ans: d.

    Q25. Smocking doesn’t cause which cancer:
    a- Larynx
    b- Nasopharynx
    c- Esophagus
    d- Bladder
    Ans: b.

    Q26. Triple assessment for Ca breast is:
    a- History, clinical examination and mammogram
    b- History, clinical examination and FNAC
    c- History and mammogram and FNAC
    d- Clinical examination, mammogram and FNAC/biopsy
    Ans: d.

    Q27. Pseudoclaudication seen due to:
    a- Femoral artery
    b- Popliteal artery
    c- Lumbar canal stenosis
    d- Radial artery
    Ans: c.

    Q28. Prognostic factors for lymphoma are all except:
    a- Stage of disease
    b- Number of extralymphatic sites involved
    c- LDH
    d- Hemoglobin
    Ans: d.

    Q29. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of all except:
    a- Arteriovenous fistula
    b- Distal ischemia
    c- Intermittent claudication
    d- Anhidrosis
    Ans: d.

    Q30. Most common type of Parastomal hernia:
    a- Loop colostomy
    b- End colostomy
    c- Loop ileostomy
    d- End ileostomy
    Ans: b.

    Q31. Difference between follicular adenoma and carcinoma:
    a- Hurthle cells
    b- Increased mitosis
    c- Vascular invasion
    d- None
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Vaccine with best efficacy:
    a- TT
    b- DPT
    c- Measles
    d- Typhoid
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Integrated management of childhood illness includes except:
    a- ARI
    b- Malaria
    c- Diarrhea
    d- TB
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Nutrition in community is assessed by all/ except:
    a- Hb < 115 gm% in 3rd trimester pregnancy
    b- ↑ 1-4 yr mortality rate
    c- Height and weight of children
    d- BW < 2500 gm
    Ans: a.

    Q4. Most common sign of acute hypoxia in neonates:
    a- Tachycardia
    b- Bradycardia
    c- Cardiac arrest tachypnea
    d- Ventricle arrhythmia
    Ans: b.

    Q5. Staging for Wilms syndrome:
    a- Chadwick
    b- International staging international society of pediatrics (ISOP)
    c- AJCC
    d- TNM
    Ans: b.

    Q6. A five year old boy has precocious puberty bp 130/80. Estimation of which of the following will help in diagnosis?
    a- 17-Hydroxyprogesterone
    b- 11-deoxycortisol
    c- Aldosterone
    d- DOCA
    Ans: b.

    Q7. A Down syndrome patient is posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is:
    a- Echocardiography
    b- CT brain
    c- X-ray cervical spine
    d- USG abdomen
    Ans: a.

    Q8. A female child was brought with complaint of generalized swelling of her body. She was passing cast in her urine. No hematuria. The true statement is:
    a- No IgG or C3 deposition on renal biopsy
    b- Her C3 levels could be low
    c- IgA nephropathy is likely
    d- Alport syndrome
    Ans: a.

    Q9. True about infantile polycystic kidney disease include the following except:
    a- Autosomal dominant
    b- Hepatic cysts
    c- Renal cysts present at birth
    d- Periportal fibrosis
    Ans: a.

    Q10. Marker of neural tube defect:
    a- Phosphatidylesterase
    b- Pseudocholinesterase
    c- Acetylcholinesterase
    d- Butyrylcholinesterase
    Ans: c.

    Q11. A child presents raised chloride levels and suspicion of cystic fibrosis, which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
    a- Repeat sweat chloride measurements
    b- Nasal electrode potential difference
    c- Fat in stool for next 72 hours
    d- DNA analysis for delta F-508 mutation
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Creamy fishy odour is caused by:
    a- Trichomonas
    b- Gardnerella
    c- Candida
    d- Chlamydia
    Ans: b.

    Q2. A pregnant female, just diagnosed to be HBS positive what is the best management?
    a- Anti HB vaccine to neonate
    b- Immunoglobulins to neonate
    c- Both
    d- Observation
    Ans: c.

    Q3. Best contraception for lactating mother:
    a- Barrier
    b- OCPs
    c- POPs
    d- Lactational amenorrhea
    Ans: c.

    Q4. Vaginal delivery allowed in all except:
    a- Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
    b- First twin cephalic and second breech
    c- Extended breech
    d- Mento anterior
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Minimum duration between onset of symptoms and death is seen in:
    a- APH
    b- PPH
    c- Septicemia
    d- Obstructed labor
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Evidence-based treatments for menorrhagia are all except:
    a- OCPs
    b- Progesterone for three months cyclically
    c- Tranexamic acid
    d- Ethamsylate
    Ans: d.

    Q7. Which is raised in dysgerminoma?
    a- AFP
    b- LDH
    c- HCG
    d- CA-A 19-9
    Ans: b.

    Q8. A female 35 years para 3, liver 3 (P3, L3) with CIN III on colposcopic biopsy what would you do?
    a- LEEP
    b- Conization
    c- Hysterectomy
    d- Cryotherapy
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Mifepristone is used in management of:
    a- Threatened abortion
    b- Fibroid
    c- Ectopic pregnancy
    d- Molar pregnancy
    Ans: c.

    Q10. True regarding DMPA include the following except:
    a- 0.3% failure rate
    b- Does not have protective effect of C/A endometrium
    c- Can be given in seizures
    d- Useful in treatment of menohorrhegia
    Ans: b.

    Q11. All are true about pre-eclampsia except:
    a- Cerebral hemorrhage
    b- Pulmonary edema
    c- ARF
    d- DVT
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Pregnant woman in 1st trimester is given spiramycin that she did not take complete treatment and baby is born with hydrocephalus. From which infection she was suffering?
    a- HSV
    b- Treponema pallidum
    c- Toxoplasma
    d- CMV
    Ans: c.

    Q13. Primary amenorrhea is not seen in:
    a- Sheehan’s syndrome
    b- Kallmann’s syndrome
    c- Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauster syndrome
    d- Turner syndrome
    Ans: a.

    Q14. About Lupus anticoagulant all are true except:
    a- Increase in aPTT only
    b- Recurrent 2nd trimester abortion in pregnant females
    c- Can occur without other symptoms of anti phospholipid antibody syndrome
    d- Thrombotic spells can be followed by severe life threatening hemorrhage
    Ans: d.

    Q15. The following drug can be given safely in pregnancy:
    a- Propylthiouracil
    b- MTX
    c- Warfarin
    d- Tetracycline
    Ans: a.

    Q16. All drugs can be given to a mother with lupus who is on 35th week of gestation except:
    a- Chloroquine
    b- Mehtotrexate
    c- Sulphadiazine/sulphasalazine
    d- Prednisolone
    Ans: b.

    Q17. In surgical staging of ovarian Ca, all are done except:
    a- Peritoneal Washing
    b- Liver biopsy
    c- Omental biopsy
    d- Palpation of organs
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Athletic pubalgia is due to:
    a- Abdominal muscle strain
    b- Quadriceps strain
    c- Rectus femoris strain
    d- Gluteus maximus strain
    Ans: a.

    Q2. All are involved in entrapment neuropathy:
    a- Median nerve
    b- Tibial nerve
    c- Femoral nerve
    d- Lat cutaneous of thigh
    Ans: c.

    Q3. True about synovial fluid al except:
    a- Secreted by Type A cells
    b- Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
    c- Contains hyaluronic acid
    d- Viscosity co efficient is variable
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Which of the following is used in osteoporosis for decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone formation?
    a- Teriparatide
    b- Calcitonin
    c- Strontium ranelate
    d- Bisphosphonate
    Ans: c.

    Q6. Not a treatment for chronic backache:
    a- NSAID
    b- Bed rest for 3 months
    c- Exercises
    d- Epidural steroid injection
    Ans: d.

    Q7. Myodesis is contraindicated in:
    a- Children
    b- Tumor
    c- Ischemia
    d- Paralysis
    Ans: c.

    Q8. Milkman fracture:
    a- Pseudofracture
    b- Fracture of metatarsals
    c- Fracture of distal end of radius
    d- Fracture of 5th metacarpal
    Ans: a.

    Q9. High tibial osteotomy all true except:
    a- Not > 30 degrees correction can be achieved
    b- Done though cancellous bone
    c- High chance of recurrence
    d- It is done unicompartmental OA
    Ans: A.

    Q10. What is the most common cause of death after total hip replacement in elderly lady?
    a- Infection
    b- Deep vein thrombus
    c- Pulmonary embolism
    d- Pneumonia
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Most sensitive investigation for DCIS invasive:
    a- Mammography
    b- USG
    c- MRI
    d- PET
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Potential for Reperfusion of the tissue, post-infarct can be assessed by:
    a- MUGA scan
    b- Thallium scan
    c- Echo cardiography
    d- MRI
    Ans: b.

    Q3. On USG diffuse thickening of gallbladder with hyperechoic shadow at neck and comet-talling is seen in:
    a- Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
    b- Adenomyomatosis
    c- Adenomyomatous polyps
    d- Cholesterol crystals
    Ans: b.

    Q4. Ca breast is not discovered in mammography in young woman due to:
    a- Dense glandular tissue
    b- Fat replaces glandular tissue
    c- Loose tissue
    d- Thick overlying skin in young
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Adrenal adenoma on CT which is not true:
    a- Hypodense mass
    b- Micro calcification can be present
    c- Contrast appears early and washes out late
    d- Regular border
    Ans: c.

    Q6. Which of the following contain Fat on mammography?
    a- Traumatic cyst
    b- Fibroadenoma
    c- Keratosis
    d- Galactocele
    Ans: a, d.

    Q7. Prunning of vessels is seen in:
    a- Lung tumor
    b- Primary Pulmonary hypertension
    c- Chronic Bronchitis
    d- Pulmonary infections
    Ans: b.

    Q8. All of the following is feature of temporal lobe epilepsy except:
    a- Atrophy of fornices
    b- Atrophy of temporal lobe
    c- Atrophy of hippocampus
    d- Atrophy of mammillary body
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Calcification of posterior spinal ligament is best diagnosed by:
    a- MRI
    b- CT
    c- X-ray
    d- USG
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Which diseases are given benefit under Disability Act except:
    a- Mental retardation
    b- Schizophrenia
    c- Bipolar disorder
    d- Dementia
    Ans: A.

    Q2. All are indications of lithium except:
    a- Neutropenia
    b- Major depression
    c- Vasculogenic Headache
    d- Generalized anxiety disorder
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Which of the following is recently included under ICD 10?
    a- Lack of exercise
    b- Alcoholism
    c- Poisoning
    d- Unhealthy food
    Ans: d.


    Q1. Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:
    a- Autosomal recessive
    b- Cutaneous fibromas
    c- Cataract
    d- Scoliosis
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Primary Skin lesion are seen in all except:
    a- Bowen’s disease
    b- Reiter’s
    c- Psoriasis
    d- Lichen planus
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Scarring alopecia is associated with:
    a- Alopecia areata
    b- Tinea capitis
    c- Androgenic alopecia
    d- Lichen planus
    Ans: d.

    Q4. A neonate with focal skin lesions and hypoplastic limbs causative agent:
    a- Cytomegalovirus
    b- Herpes Zoster
    c- Toxoplasma
    d- T. pallidum
    Ans: b.

    Q5. Patient present with 5 days fever and raised erythematous lesions. Which on biopsy revealed neutrophilic infiltrate. What is a most probable diagnosis:
    a- ENL
    b- Sweat syndrome
    c- Erythema nodosum diminuta
    d- None
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Involvement of sweat glands and hair follicles with granuloma around the hair follicles is seen in:
    a- Lichen Scrofulosum
    b- Papulonecrotic tuberculid
    c- Lupus vulgaris
    d- Military TB
    Ans: a.

    Q7. Incontinentia pigmenti are associated with all except:
    a- 100% ocular problems
    b- X-linked dominant condition
    c- Linear hyperpigmented skin lesions
    d- Associated with eye problems
    Ans: a.

  4. #4
    Join Date
    Apr 2007
    Rep Power


    1.bone mineralization marker
    ans : labelled tetracycline
    2.atheletic pubalgia
    ans: abdominal muscle strain
    3.The International Prognostic Index of lymphoma(I haemoglobin and serum pr h 17th 692
    4.which of the following does not occur in rcc cushing syndrome h 17th 592
    5.prognostic indicator of colon cancer lymph node status h 17th 575
    6 mutation not found in colon cancer beta catenin h 17th 574
    7. not a part of pancreatic cancer p53 mutation found in 75%cases h 17th 587
    8 does not cause folic acid deficience chloroquine h 17th 649
    9. not a component of pnh massive splenomegally h 17th 661
    10. a q about small cell carcinoma most sensitive to chemotherapy h 17th 561
    11 which of the following does not increase appetite msh h 17th 464
    12.which of the following is not done in ca ovary staging peritoneal biopsy h 17th 605
    13 which of the followin is not a type of analytical study field trial park 19th 58
    14 not a useful component of chronic disease depends upon dose park 19th 84
    15 chemoprophylaxis is given in all except typhoid park 19th 106
    16 q fever transmission by aerosol park 19th 252
    17 1 q about not includede in aids control programme supply of ART park 17th 357
    18.average indian man 60 kg park 500
    19.incidence can be calculated by prospective cohort studypark 19th 71
    20.vit a prophylaxis is type of specific protection park 19th 39
    21. late expanding phase means birth rate falls and death rates declines still further park 19th 379
    22. aging which of the following true oxidative free radical robbins 7th 42
    23 hallmark of acute inflamation vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability r 50
    24 which of the following specifically found in intrinsic pathway factor 12 r 128
    25 not seen in idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis eosinopenia r 746
    26 hypersensitive pneumonitis is type of delayed type of hsn rctn r 739
    27.marker of gist cd 117 r 827
    28.lymphoid tissue found in small intestine in lamina p r 829
    29.finish type nephrotic syndrome is due to nephrin gene r [snip]
    30. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis false is causative organism is tb r 1001 beningn nephrosclerosis specific finding hyaline arteriosclerosis r 1006
    32. moderate increase is incidence of breast cancer by atypical hypeplasia r 1130
    33/reversible ischemia most sensitive tst thallium scan h 17th 1519
    34.not a component of SIRS thrombocytopenia h 17th 1696
    35. child with multiple renal cysts false is autosomal inheritence h 17th 1796
    36.chief cells are found in fundus of gastric gland h 17th 1855
    37 differance between follicular adenoma nd carcinoma vascular invasion h 17th 2245
    38. a patient with family history of diabetis with absent ketonuria cant be diagnosed as type 1 DM h 2279
    39 which of the following is tre about sertoli cell helps in spermiogenesis h 17th 2312
    40.which of the following is false about trochlear nerve supply ipsilateral superior oblique muscle h 17th 193
    41.does not cause diarhea by invasion b.cereus h 17th 248
    42. which of the following does not cause increased anion gap diarhea h 17th 290
    43.which of the following does not cause hirsutism hyperthyroidism h 17th 301
    44.most common cause of superficial v thrombosis intravenous infusion csdt 12th 858
    45.chronic ischemia causes rest pain csdt 12th 798 nonoperative treatment for stress incontinence pelvic floor exercise csdt 1072
    47.sigmoid curve in hemoglobin oxygen binding is due to cooperative binding harper 27th 43
    48.HBS causes defect in function harper 27th 47
    49 which of the following is false about lipoprotein lipase does not require apo c II as cofactor har 219
    50.which of the following helps in intron removel snRNA har 27th 319

    51.which of the following helps in DNA nick sealing DNA ligase har 27th 336
    52 sodium bicarbonate is added to local Anaesthesia to increase speed of onset katjung 10th 419
    53. all except 1 can be used in acute closure glaucoma duoxetine ref
    54 . 1 repeat q from nov 2008 about zn causes pulmonary fibosis
    55 1 repeat q from nov 2008 as drug causin bone formation and antio resorptive strontium ranelate
    56 1 repeat q about c wave in JVP due to bulging of av valve in to right atria
    57 triple phosphete stones is due to proteus infection h 17th 1819
    58.false about treatment of chronic low back pain bed rest 4 3 month h 17th 115 its given tht bed rest should not exceed 2 days
    59. hyperaldosteronism all are true except metabolic acidosis h 17th 288
    60.which of the following causes fastest reduction in k+ level in hyperkalemia glucose with insulin
    61scarring alopecia is caused by lichen planus h 322
    62. a q was there like a female child came 4 tosillectomy with increased a PTT diagnosis isVWF disease h 723
    63. a q was there with some older aged male with lytic bone lesion rest i dont remember but the dignosis is multiple myeloma and investigation to be done is serum electrophoresis h 704
    64.p.multocida is caused by animal bite h 801
    65 all are true except necrotisin fascitis ... its caused by grp b streptococcus h 17th 801
    66. fishy odour is found in gardnella infection h 17th 827
    67. a q was thr with infection and mode of transmission with listeria legionella n tetanus as choice ans the wrong ans is tetanus is due to aerosol dust h 17th 898
    68. culture media used for etec o157 is sorbitol mc konky media h 17th 942
    69. endemic relapsing fever is caused by a/e b.recurrentis h 17th 1052
    70 a/e are true about parvo virus is transplacental fetal infection incidence is <,10% h 17th 1116
    71. HIV infects predominently CD4 h 17th 1139 induced cardiomyopathy all are true except it causes aortic aneurism h 1174
    73.enterovirus causes a/e hemmorhagic fever h 1209
    74.dengue hemmorhagic fever is caused by reinfection with another dengue virus serotype h 1239
    75 drug of choice in severe falciperum malaria artesunate h 1289
    76. maltese cross on immunoforoscence babesia microti h 1295
    77. true about simple random saampling each unit has a n equal chance of being drawn park 703
    78.a q about comet tail appearance adenomyosis of gall bladder repeat from nov 2008
    79. obstructive azoospermia true statement is normal fsh with normal lh h 2314 its given normal fsh only not mentioned abt lhi will search 4 further referanc
    80. a/e are true abt eaton lambert syndrome spare ocular m. h 2674
    81.signal transmission occurs between cell by all route except gap junction ganong 22nd 16
    82.which of the following is true about fascilitated diffusion carrier protein mediated gan 31
    83.intrinsic factor is secreted by parietal cells gan 491
    84. which of the following is secreted by paneth cells lysozyme gan 506,518
    85.which of teh following is not a function of CD4 helper cell >>>>>>>> cytotoxicity gan 527
    86.increased blood flow to muscle during exercise is due to accumulation of vasodilator metabolites gan 632
    87.diastolic flow in aorta is due to elastic recoil of aortic wall gan 587
    88.primary stimulus to chemoreceptors is due to increased h+ions gan 675
    89.cyanosis does not occur in anemic hypoxia gan 684
    90. previlaged communication means relation between a dr and public authority concerned with moral dutis to protect public parikh 6th 1.34
    91.1q was thr about fingerprints are lost in leprosy repea
    92.abrasions should be distinguished from ant bite parikh 4.3
    93.foreign body sensation in eye with arthritis diagnosis is reactive arthritis h 17th 2113
    94.which of the following is not true about angioneurotic edeme >>pittin in nature h 17th 2066
    95 another q was there with immediately after taking some food develops dyspnea cyanosis dianosis is angioneurotic edema h 2066
    96.not a direct cutaneous disease reiters disease h 2066
    97.extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the cause secondary impact injury not secondary injury as it occurs on opposite side of primary impact injury parikh 4.133
    98. 20yrs. old male with Hb-10 MCV 70 serum iron 65 serum ferritin 100 what is the diagnosis thallasemia trait table [snip]-6 page 633 and table 99.2 page 637
    99.Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct obstructiv sleep apnoea h 178
    100. sleep is controlled by which centre hypothalamus h 173

    101.myoodesis is c/i in ischemia
    102 intermittent claudication pain is produced during exercise h 1168
    103 cell cycle specific agent a/e vinblastine bleomycin katzung 881
    104ifosphamide is an alkylating agent katzung 882
    105.true about nitroglycerine except hypotension and bradycardia kat 187
    106. valproate causes a/e osteomalacia kat 387
    107.water sample estimation all are true except cl.perfringes spore denotes recent contamination park 580
    108 INMCI does not include tb park 372
    109.pseudoclaudication is due to ---- COMPRESSION OF CAUDA EQUINNA (repeat question)
    110.Cap in lac operon is - positive regulator {repeat}
    111.Shortest interval in onset to death- pph dutta 6th 412
    112.a female child was brought with complaint of generalised swelling of her body. She was passing fatty cast in her urine. No haematuria. The true statement is – no IgG or C3 deposition seen on renal biopsy h 1790
    113. von hippel landau syndrome consists of a/e – gastric cancer, renal cell carcinoma, phaechromocytoma, cerebral and retinal haemangiomas. gastric cancer r 1414
    114.triple assessment of breast dis includes clinical ex,mammogram,aspiration h 564
    115.the following cephalosporin doesn’t need dose modifications depending on gfr values – cefoperazone kat 737
    116.tacrolimus side effect – nephrotoxicity kat 918
    117. Hand foot and mouth syndrome – capecitabin kat 888
    118. The nephrotoxicity of cisplatin is increased by a/e – rifampicin kat 774
    119. The following drug can be given safe in pregnancy - propylthiouracil kat 626
    120. cystic fibrosis all are true except – defect in calcium channel h 1632
    121. girl with abnormal sweat chloride test, next diagnostic test – transnasal potential difference h 1634
    122 HepB infected neonate - both Vaccine and Immunoglobin repeat
    123 Joint aspiration in acute gout shows prdominent neutrophills or birefringent needle-shaped msu crystal h 2166
    124 About mesial temporal lobe epilepsy true is it involves hippocampus h 2500
    125 Lupus anticoagulant true is specifically increases PTT h 731
    126.Nerve entrapment all except femoral h 2654
    127.triad of tuberous sclerosis a/e rhabdomyoma h 2607
    128 Coombs positive anaemia – sle h 659
    129 normal curve mean=median b k mahajan 6th ed 81
    130. abt apla syndrome all are true except severe laife threatening hemmorhage ref i will give soon
    131.contineous data is represented by histogram mahajan 20
    132. baby clinic a/e helping mother to initiate breast feeding with in 4 hr of normal vaginal delivery park 444
    133. the following vaccine when contaminated causes toxic shock syndrome – measles vaccine park 129
    134 abt hemochromatosis true is heterozygosity h 2430
    135. Proteus –ans. triple phosphate renal stone h 1819
    136. Milkman # - pseudo#
    137. dense mammogram in young female is due to more glandular tissue
    138 gold standard test to diagnose insulinoma 72 hr fasting plasma glucose level ref
    139. true about trroters triad except seizures repeat with different choice
    140. pulsatile large liver is seen in tricuspid regurgitition h 1479
    141 after 4 days of fasting glucose receptors increase in all except adipose tissue harper 27th 140
    142 commonest organ to be injured in bomb blast – lung parikh 4.184
    143 thromboembolism assoc with a/e – diabetes h 660
    144.vaginal delivery not allowed in twin with 1 vertx n other with non vertex presentation dutta 211
    145. all are effect of estrogen except decreased HDL kat 658
    146.smoking assoc with a/e nasopharyngeal cancer h 487
    147 all are included in nutritional surveillance except maternal haemoglobin <11.5% park
    148 thorasic outlet syndrome is diagnosed by DSA as clinical examination finding is similar with cervical disk disease and X RAY is not diagnostic and DSA shows post stenotic dilatation which is definitive csdt12th 822
    149.mifepristone can be given in fibroid uterus shaw 345
    150. carpal tunnel syndrome caused by a/e addisons disease h 2154

    151 a/e is a cause of priamry amennorhe a.... sneehans syndrome shaw 280
    152 all are C/I of laparoscopic sterilisation except obesity as its C/I in extreme obesity not obesity shaw 238
    153 best contraceptive in lactation progesterone pill as its male condom thts effective not female condoms so a generalised term of barrier method cant be best in lactation shaw 240 dutta 548
    54.neonate with scarred and hypoplastic limb .. congenital varicella
    155 mother in 1st trimester pregnancy with irregular use of spiramycin gave birth to a baby with hydrcephalus diagnosis is congenital toxoplasmosis h 1308
    156 a q was thr abt SDS PAGE ans is it causes protein denaturation the b choice in the q har27th24
    157 acetyl coA is a direct precurser of a/e glucose harper27th 139
    158 mi RNA helps in gene regulation harper 320
    159. angiotensin a/e – vasodilatation gan 456
    160. renal Physiology true – 5%of cardiac output received by kidney gan 708
    161.Anatomical snuff box – radial a repeat
    162 Pauci immune glomerulonephritis – microangiopathic polyangitis rob 977
    163 a/e are true about neuroblastoma mst common mets to lung
    164 bld supply of medulla are a/e basilar a bdc 304
    165. trauma patient with gcs score 15, bp 100/80 next step iv fluid with blood for cross matching csdt 214
    166 content of deep perineal pouch a/e root of penis repeat
    167.part of pelvic diaphragm a/e - colles fascia bdc 332
    168. posterior superior alveolar n is a branch of – ifraorbital nerve
    69 a lady with temporal field defects, galactorrhoea, most common cause – pituitary macroadenoma h 2202
    170 orphan annie nuclei is found in a/e follicular carcinoma thyroid h 2245
    171 hepatomegaly is caused by all except hepatic pophyria plz look the porphyria chapter frm harrison 2438
    172 lithium can be used in all except generalised anxiety disorder as its also used in cluster headache but no where mentioned in generalised anxiety disorder in hari 2712 abt lithium so the ans wd be generalised anxiety disorder
    173. dysgerminoma marker – LDH
    174.superior gluteal nerve supplies all except – gluteus maximus
    175.45 year old male had a chest pain. he died after 4 days. on postmortem intramural coagulation was found. true finding is presence of granulomatous inflammation r 579
    176 spstic paraplegia is caused by all except lead poisoning
    177 evidence based treatment fr mennorrhagia are a/e ethamsylate
    178,secretomotor fire to parotid pass through a/e greater petrosal n bdc 127
    179 the most bactericidal among the following oxygen free radical r 61,75
    180.spongy urethra drainage into which node – deep inguinal
    bdc 350
    181.chemoradiation is given in a/e glottic T2 cancr ref dhingra and plz review h 608 4 trt in cancer cx its given in it
    182.angiogenesis requires a/e –can any 1 tell me whts the choice in ths q IL8 or IL 1 as i remember i had marked it thnkn it IL!
    183.peripheral pulmonary a. prunning is seen in pulmonary hypertension h 1576
    184.paneth cell secret lysozyme
    185 best predictor of CHD lipoprotein a park 306
    186 not a feature of right heart failure increased PCWP r 563
    187 not afeature of hasimotos thyroiditis orphan an nuclei h 2230
    188 not a feature of temporal arteritis worsens on warmth exposure h 96
    189 LDH level raised in retinoblastoma khurana 4th 282
    190 motorcyclist's fructure means base of skull divided into 2 halves reddy synopsis 19th ed 129
    191 traumatic asphyxia seen in a/e accidental strangulation reddy 163
    192 casper dictu denotes time since dath reddy 85
    193 pain sensitive structures a/e choroid plexus repeat
    194 all are indicated in treatment of proliferative diabetic retinopathy except exphotocoagulation parson 20th 297
    195 all are seen in idiopathic juvenile arthritis except rheumatoid nodule
    196 stellate wound contact shot injury reddy 111
    197.35 yr female para 3+0,CIN 3 in one quadrant on pap smear, what is the management cone excision as it provides tissue for biopsy also shaw 385 h 608
    198 45 yr man with 2 cm papillary ca thyroid nodule on left lobe trt of choice is near total thyroidectomy with lt RND csdt 285
    199.amifostine is protective in all except cns . amifostine protects all organs from radiation exposure except CNS or skin actuaaly all are giving cns as ans
    200.karyotyping used for – chromosomal abnormalities

    201 regarding topical mitomycin c i want to tell that after searching so many internet sites i got the result thah it can be given in laryngeal stenosis and also struge weber syndrome rest the wish of AIIMS faculty
    202.zenker diverticulum
    203.risk factor for gb polyp turning into malignancy a/e size 5mm or >
    204.apoptosis which cell organelle responsible – mitochondria rob 29
    205 Sympathectomy usefull in all except anhydrosis repeat
    206.visual cycle – opsin combines with retinol repeat
    207 a q on genomic imprinting
    208.splenic artery br a/e right gastro epiploic
    209 stellate ganglion block causes all except – bradycardia
    210.neurofibromatosis a/e ans is autosomal recessive
    211. a q about malformation
    212. DSM IV include benefit for mental retardation
    213 most common site of subclavian a stenosis 1 st part
    214. Which of these is a set point which is framed for a long term plans, but yet something that can not be quantified/measured? Objective graft material for below inguinal ligament anastomosis reverse saphenous vein
    216,Parastomal hernia MCC-end colostomy
    217.myocardiac o2 demand depends upon duration of systole g 575
    218, incontinenta pigmenti? 100 percent with ocular symptoms
    219.all are true except erythrogenic toxin is plasmid mediated
    220.SEPS is used 4 veins
    221.precocious puberty boy 5years with pubic hair, bp 120/90 – 11 beta hydroxylase h 2344
    222 intestinal absorption test stoll fat estimation h 1877
    223 heat rupture true is irregular margin reddy 143
    224.Rheumatoid factor will give false negative tests with – coombs test….
    225.restless leg syndrome seen in renal failure h 174
    226.hepatitis C true statement is moost common indication 4 liver transplantation h 1990
    227.arteriovenous shunt true is helps in thermoregulation
    228.aedes mosquito a/e - constant biters, eggs cannot survive more than one week without water, transmit dengue ans constant biters park 625 maximum transmission – homosexual, heterosexual, blood transfusion, needle prick ans blood tranfusion park 289
    230.systolic thrill in left 2nd or 3rd intercostal space is seen in a/e ,,,, subpulmonic vsd, pink TOF, ebsteins anomaly ,valvular pulmonic stenosis as per referances given i got the ans that subpulmonary vsd
    231 leptospirosis all except? antibody cn b detectd in a week
    232 a/e 1 are comlication of eclampsia deep vein thrombosis dutta 234
    233 pancreatic transplant with bladder catheter – urine amylase, blood amylase, blood glucose ans urinary amylase
    234.aortic aneurysm rupture occurs mostly – anterior, posterior, lateral, intraperitoneal ans posterior
    235.the following joint has least chances for recurrent dislocation – ankle, hip, shoulder, knee ans ankle reviewed from various sites
    236 which of the following is not helpful in oxidation reduction reaction dehydroperoxidase har 96
    237.which true about vasomotor centre?? connected to cardiovagal fibres
    238.Closure of nueral tube begins at- Cervical
    239 rapid correction of hyperglycemia using insulin alone will result in –hypernatremia h 2285
    240 foamy histiocytes and intense neutrophilic infilterates in a patient presenting with fever and lymphadenopathy ....diagnosis is sweet syndrome
    241.most common change in child in response to hypoxia ans tachycardia
    242. sternberg camnal false is lies lateral to foramen rotundum ANS 4
    243.chemotherapeutic agent not used in osteosarcoma ACCRD TO T10 PROTOCOL ETOPOSIDE
    245 energy source in restg state DEPENDS ON ?? lean body mass,heart rate,?,? LEAN BODY MASS HAR 486
    246 chlamydia true can be grown on culture
    247 i dnt remember the exact q bt mentioned tht child is bein ntubated n ventillated wht to do next thnk no ref required its ABC of resuscication bt a choice was thr as i remember secure airway as intubation is part of securin airway it has been excludedv transfusion and bood for cross matching
    248.crude birth rate a/e – ratio, fertility indicator, still born excluded
    ans fertility indicator park 386
    249 child bites his fingers – hgprtase def, adenosine deaminase def
    ans hgprt deficiency har 308
    250.pancreatic transplant+bladder drainage, investigation to evaluate function--- urinary amylase/ serum amylase/ bilirubin ans-- urinary amylase
    251 a patient with acute leukemia and hyperleiukocytosis which is not to be given imediatle ans chemotherapy ref h 680
    252 .which of the following is a non progressive esophageal contraction ans tertiary
    253.most common cause of death after 48 hr of THR PULMONARY EMBOLISM
    254.6 year old girl comes with dyspnea and cough... after primary treatment she was sent home.. a weak later the whole lung on right side was opacified on cxr... what's probable diagnosis FB ASPIRATION CSDT 1311
    255.Q. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls, out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys which were admitted 20 needed surgeries. What is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery? 2/6
    256.true about papilloma of larynx ans hpv 6 is more virulent
    257.spread of malignancy) from cns tumors to the inner ear occurs along which of the following?
    a.endolymphatic sac
    b.sup vestibular nerve sheath
    c.cochlear nerve
    d.hyrlt fissure ans cochlear aqueduct
    258 regarding non typhoidal salmenellosis A/E a)can be transmitted by eating poultry products
    b)can be diagnosed by blood culture better than stool sample
    c)quinolones r effective
    d)-severe in neonates ANS B HAR 960
    259.preg female wid sle can b given all xcept predni,mtx,sulfasalazine.
    ans sulfasalazine as it causes drug induced lupus ref har 2083
    260.answr to d disinfctant ques is a/e phenol works more in presence of organic matter...
    it actually loses its potency in presence of pus,blood etc plz chq ananth its given sm1 has taken my book so cant give u page ref
    261.hypercalcemia a/e milk alkali syn,hyperparathyroid,celiac dis ans celiac disease h 2380,1880

    262 usg apperance of thyroid ca..all except...
    c)irregular margin..

    264 I THNK A REPEAT Q ventral neural tube defect marker is a- phoshphatidyl esterase b- c-acetyl choline esterase ANS B


    266 INVESTIGATION OF CHOICE FOR dcis usg ref

    267 incontinenti pigmenti – 100% ophthalmic problems, x linked dominant, skin rash, associated with eye problems
    ans 100% ophthalmic involvement ref

    268. all the following are composite muscles except – flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus, pectineus, biceps femoris
    269.hbs 4 options all except
    a) glutamate replaced by valine
    b)non polar replaced by polar
    c) hetrozygotes with hbs r protected frm malaria
    d) something abt sticky patch
    ANS .b ref harper 27 47
    270 earliest change from Standing to sitting position is increased venous return
    271. Wilm's Tumor - National Wilm tumor staging system ref nelson copying the thns given in nelson 18th ed

    281 IDC classification??
    282 orthopaedics -clinical picture was given..and the patients index finger remained extended on making a fist......i think it was a qn on pointing index n the ans was Median nerve.
    283 hiv complicationsall excpt-cardiac tamponade,effusion,thromboemb(ans harrison),
    284 conjunti foreign body sensation with arthritis h/o trip -reiters synd
    285 neuroblastoma true is a/e??spreads through vessels,abdominal mass??
    286 one more question with ideas289 dose reduction needed in renal failure all except-rifampicin
    290 thyroid ca indicated by all excpt-collumnar cells in follicles,microcalcification,??
    291 rooooming in includes all except-breast feeding initiation after 4 hrs of vag delivery
    292 c wave in JVP
    293 7. Moderate grade risk factor of Breast carcinoma- atypical hyperplasia
    294 one on Genomic imprinting
    295 Colon carcinoma single most imp prognostic factor
    296. congenital deformity of organ- malformation
    297 oxidation reduction occurs with all except- Hydroperoxidases, perosidases, oxidases
    298 Folic def all except- Chloroquine
    299. diagnostic test for insulinoma-72 hr fastin test
    300.vaginal delivery is contraindicated in-monochorionic monoamniotic twins,mento anterior position..

  5. #5
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    so helpful u r.............

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    oh....its demons stuff.......u r gr8888

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